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How would we say "ducks, my ducks" as if we were talking to our mind e.g. ducks my ducks where you have been till now...
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Assuming my understanding of suffixes is correct it seems like ördeklerim, on its own, could either be the possessive or the copula. In this sentence the possessive makes more sense than the copula (I am ducks) but is there a way to know for sure which one is being used in other sentences?
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Ördekler = ducks or the ducks
benim ördeklerim. = my ducks (possessive pronoun + noun with possessive ending)
The speaker is claiming ownership of the ducks. "The ducks are my ducks, (not his ducks)."
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Can we get explanation why the answer "The ducks are mine" is not correct?
Alex888021
Can we get explanation why the answer "The ducks are mine" is not correct?
"Ördekler benim ördeklerim." Translation: The ducks are my ducks.
Let's look at the Turkish question:
Plural noun - "Ördekler" "the" ducks.
Benim - Ben - "me" & -im suffix "are mine."
Ördeklerim - ördek - "duck" ördekler - "the" ducks & ördeklerim. The -im suffix signifies ownership - possession.
The ducks are my ducks. The Turkish question has two plural words. The repeated plural word ducks for "subject" & "object."
"My" & "mine" are pronouns & determiners in English. The Turkish question does not have a verb as such & "ördeklerim" is the only way to recognise /distinguish ownership.
I still believe personally that your answer is correct.
If I am wrong regarding the verb then it is integral to the word - ördeklerim - "my ducks."
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Thanks for the explanation :-) I undrestand now. By the meaning it could be ok, but we need to translate as it is written.
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Not gonna belabour the point . Simple answer is that the ducks are mentioned twice in the sentence. That's why
