No. Acabar + de + infinitive means you just finished doing the verb. If you wanted to say that she stops doing something you would use either terminar or dejar de. But you are correct that acabar in other constructions does mean to finish, which sometimes can translate as stop.
acabar (conjugated) de + infinitive = to just ____ (Por ejemplo: Acabo de terminar el libro.) I just finished the book. It's an idiom translating to "just".
I tried this and it is still not accepted. Will report and see if we are correct.
that requires haber conjugated as ha. I put she finished drinking the wine. I don't imagine the rush of just was necessary. I might be wrong, anyone know?
Yes, surly this should be accepted. It's 'has just finished' is the translation I learnt and it's even in the hints. However, I wrote it and was marked wrong.
I see your point, because "has just" is in the hints and "finished" is also in the hints, but not both together. Including both changes the sentence.
It's a bit like the difference between "I ate an apple" and "I have eaten an apple". They can both mean the same thing, but they are using different grammatical constructs, and would not be translated in the same way.
That's cos you are wrong. 'Has just finished' is 'acaba de terminar'. Post Data - I'm not surly.
Trying to make sense of this. "Acaba" is present tense, theoretically. So "She finishes..." but the addition of "de" makes it recent past tense? So "She finishes drinking wine." would be "Ella acaba beber vino." ? Thanks in advance.
I don't see below where anyone has answered this yet. Acaba is present tense, shouldn't finished be acabó? Someone help me understand?
English doesn't really have a direct translation of "acabar". About the best we can do is to say "just finished", but because "finished" is past tense, it looks like a past tense to us.
So the difference between "acaba" and "acabó" comes down to when you "just finished" something.
The concept of "present" in any language is a little blurry. It includes something that is happening right now, but is often stretched to include something that happened just moments ago.
To make this a little clearer, consider inserting either "now" (present tense) or "then" (past tense) into the construct "just finished"...
"Ella acaba de beber vino" = "She just (now) finished drinking wine"
"Ella acabó de beber vino" = "She just (then) finished drinking wine"
I hope that helps. I think the fact that you could insert "now" makes it clear that we are using a present tense.
Ella acabo de beber vine (accent over the o, I can't add them on my phone keyboard) should read she had just finished drinking wine. I think. So like if you were telling a story, you'd use the past tense of acabar plus de. Ella acabar de beber vine reads she just finished drinking wine. But I'm no expert. Also, i don't think I've ever heard acabar used without being followed by de. Except in this exercise.
There's a typo in the second example sentence where a acabar is in the infinitive. That was the auto correct on my phone sorry. Also I see it says vine, not vino.
It shouldn't be. It does not mean that. 'finish' does not feature in this construction.
She just drank wine- was accepted. That's great for me but is this the best translation?
I guess "drank" is no longer being accepted. I wrote what you wrote and it told me I need to spell it as "drunk".
Yeah, I just got told drank needed to be drunk. I don't think someone would ever say "she drunk wine"
I can't see why" She finishes drinking wine" was not accepted. The drop down box lists finish as a hint for acaba.
Sanlee - there are infinitives that take a preposition and when they do the meaning can be altered. It very well may be true that acaba showed finishes however the acabar de is define as
" Verbs followed by de plus an infinite:acabar de = to have just (done something)"
So in this sentence acaba de means she has just done something.
I think this sentence is a little unfair if you haven't worked with the infinitives + prepositions. Also the drop down options aren't specific to any particular sentence so it may look only at one word. I do see sometimes it will include 2 or 3 word phrases. I always have a couple of dictionaries on hand to check besides the drop down options.
Okay, let me see if I understand this. If the infinitive is the object of a preposition, then the infinitive becomes a gerund? Beber goes from "to drink" to "drinking". And we just accept that "acaba de" means " (you-he-she-it) just finished". Am I even close?
Shafica - yes you are close. I would just word it differently. See my comments above. Note there isn't a preposition because 'acaba de' means just finished. It in this case requires the infinitive be an ing but not because its the object of a preposition but more to point out the action was just recently completed. I hope this helps.
I feel like acabar de is a verb this program really shouldn't try to mess with because there's too much variation on what it could be translated as. Many of the sentiments expressed here are perfectly fine
so last time I went through, I got a sentence similar to this, and DRUNK was required, so this time I went through and used DRUNK, and DRANK was the right answer... on back to back attempts. Maybe my mastery of english (my primary language) needs work? I'm confused
'She has just drank wine' was wrong. Why? Past tense for drink is not drunk. Drunk is a verb or to be. I'm confused:/
"Drunk" is the past participle--the form used after some form of "to have." Thus, "she has drunk" is present perfect tense (i.e. it's presently complete). "She drank" is simple past tense. You can insert "just" into either sentence without changing the verb's form.
Could someone check my understanding here? Spanishdict.com translates the phrase "acabar de" as "just," with no "to have" or "finished" involved. Another user described "acabar de" as "to have just [done something]"--so the phrase seems to act like either an adverb or a helping verb modifying the timing of the main verb, which follows in its infinitive (dictionary) form. In the latter respect, "acabar de" seems similar to "haber"--we could say something like "Ella ha terminado de beber vino" for "She has finished drinking wine." How does "acaba de" differ or change the nuance of the sentence?
I reckon a literal translation would sound odd in English--something like "She finishes from drinking wine." I suppose that allows us a little flexibility in translating this into simple past or present perfect, with the main verb either "finished" or "drank." Would all of the following work as translations? "She has just finished drinking wine." "She just finished drinking wine." "She finishes drinking wine." "She has just drunk wine." "She just drank wine."
First, as others have noted, "acabar" has a sense of recent completion, so the English equivalent would be to add a word such as "just" ("just finished"). Second, I would omit the "up." For some reason that I can't really articulate, the word sounds awkward in this construction, right before the gerund. It sounds more natural in a sentence such as "she finished up her drink"--though I'd likely leave it off even then.
It says "She is just drunk wine" after I said "She is just drinking wine". Good england 10/10
Because it just is. That's foreign languages for you. You can't just transliterate every phrase from Spanish into English, or vice versa. There is no 100% mathematical formula to translate languages. If it helps, translate it literally - "She finishes/ends(her/him/it) of to-drink wine. Post Data (PS) - I often wonder why 'students' at, say, level 25, having answered about 50,000 questions, can't get their heads around concepts that half decent online lessons or a library book/CD would have taught in the first few months. It's not easy, but you have to put the work in to become semi-proficient in any language, even your native tongue.
She is just drunk wine is acceptable, but She is just drinking wine is not. Can anybody help?
I had no idea, I put " she has just been drinking wine". Wrong! the correction was "She has just finished drinking wine." Where did the "finished" come from?
What is the purpose of "de" in this sentence? A direct translation would read: She just of drink wine. I thought the past tense of beber was bebida.
In this context the verb 'acabar' requires the preposition 'de'. Others require 'a', 'con', etc. That's just the way it is. Also, more accurately, a direct translation is - 'She ends of (to) drink wine'. So, you can see that trying to translate directly is of limited or no use for idiomatic expressions. This one means 'She has just drunk wine', despite what the DL robot states. This approach MAY assist some in remembering the proper meanings.
My correct answer was given as "she is just drunk wine" !! That isn't anyone's English. I put "She is just drinking wine." but it was wrong.
It is an idiomatic expression which implies 'has'. This is a common expression. Are you not learning Spanish from other sources?
Then the 'has' is also implied in the english translation and, like in Spanish, is not required. So 'she just finished drinking wine' should be correct.
I am learning Spanish from other sources, I live in Spain, am studying Spanish at language school in Madrid and have a Spanish flatmate.
100% wrong. So is DL; it often is. Your translation doesn't even make sense in English; it is ambiguous at best. 1) The word 'has' is not usually implied in English; eg, 'He arrived a year ago' can not sensibly be replaced by 'He has arrived a year ago' even if it MAY work in Spanish. 2) The correct translation is 'She has just drunk wine'. You are confusing the verb 'acabar' (to finish/end) with the idiomatic expression 'acabar de' which means to have JUST done something. The word 'finish/ed' should NOT feature in any correct translation. You would score no marks in an exam, because the examiner would deduce that you didn't understand a basic idiomatic expression. Don't try to transliterate Spanish expressions; you will nearly always get it wrong! Check out the other posts here, & ask your language school. If they don't agree with me, change school immediately! PS I am just a learner too.
Maybe you're trying to literally translate the phrase? Sometimes you just have to learn idiomatic phrases by rote. Note my other comments on how I try to get my head around these types of phrases.
'just' means a past action that has just happened i.e. relation with the present therefore present perfect and not past simple
So what's wrong with "She was just drinking wine"? It has the same two meanings, she was only drinking wine and she was drinking wine shortly before that that statement. It's got the "just" in it, and "beber" doesn't mean "drank" any more than it means "was drinking" Or is there a very specific meaning to "de beber"?
I tend to agree with Duo on this one. If I heard someone say she was just drinking wine my first assumption would be that just meant only, whereas if I heard She just drank wine or even she just was drinking wine I would assume that she just finished drinking wine. But, although we use the present progressive much like the Spanish uses the present for what's happening now, we DON'T do that with the past progressive. We use the past progressive more like other languages use all progressive tenses (if they have them) to indicate something was ongoing. But this sentence is not appropriate for the past progressive. Acabar de infinitive is somewhat strange because it is a present tense construction, but it has a standard translation using the phrase just finished and the present participle without the verb to be or simply the word just plus the simple past. Acabamos de trabajar We just finished working or we just worked. Acabo de comer I just finished eating or I just ate. In English the second option is more common, but the first is a little more literal and therefor may work better for some. Acabar normally means to finish. So the de does not affect the meaning of beber, except for the fact that acabar de infinitive has a very specific meaning.
Because it is 100% incorrect. 'Acabar de' means to have recently/just completed doing something. Any other interpretation you offer will earn you no marks in an exam question.
Not sure it should. My understanding of "acabar" is that it has a sense of being recently completed/finished, like the way we say "just finished".
I believe the "de" in "acaba de" is what changes it from "finished" to "just finished."
It doesn't change to 'just finished'. It means 'She [he/you/it] has [have] just...' then past participle of the relevant verb, '..drunk...'. When you see 'acabar-de' get 'finished' out of your head, unless it helps you transition to the correct translation.