"Por supuesto que soy yo."

Translation:Of course it is me.

5 years ago

133 Comments
This discussion is locked.


https://www.duolingo.com/bcwarne

Could someone explain why "que" is necessary here. Thanks.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/tu.8zPhLD72zzoZN
tu.8zPhLD72zzoZN
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"Of course that is I" formal English.

Casual English or colloquialism "Of course it's me."

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/tan43
tan43
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Is that the reason why we can't say something like "por supuesto, esto es mi"? Can't we use 'mi' in this case?..

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Ryanbeastxcore

Mi means my, as in my jacket. So to say mi would leave someone wondering what is yours.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/tan43
tan43
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The "mi" I am talking about is an object pronoun. But I got it already, so thanks anyway.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/catcampion

Eso es (con acento), para aclarar.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/tamyrha

This doesn't make any sense at all. That is I

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/tu.8zPhLD72zzoZN
tu.8zPhLD72zzoZN
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I think it would more likely be " It is I." in formal English. Nominative case is used after the verb to be, however with time it became more popular to use the emphasized form "It is me." or "It's me."

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Hoja.de.Arce
Hoja.de.Arce
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No, "It is me" is common and perfectly acceptable in formal English—except amongst prescriptionists, who make up a minority of the population. It is not that "nominate case is used after the verb to be", it is that prescriptionists demand the nominative be used after the verb to be—the same small-minded prescriptionists who invented myths such as the "split" infinitive and the "stranded" preposition.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Fillmoe
Fillmoe
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I may be a "prescriptionist," but I am NOT small minded. I accept that some people ignore formal usage.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/joehhendrickson

He is only trying to explain the Spanish usage by analogy to formal English, not criticize the way you talk.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/tu.8zPhLD72zzoZN
tu.8zPhLD72zzoZN
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Relax, it is perfectly acceptable to say "It's me" as when someone doesn't know that it is you, you will be sure to emphasize who it is, of course. If you were to say "It is I.", then there would be no emphasis and you would probably be repeating back something that someone already knows. It is no longer the way most people speak, but both are correct.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/joehhendrickson

"Por supuesto" is translated into English as "of course" but in Spanish it means "it is assmued." If it is followed by a dependent clause, then a conjunction is required. "It is assumed that..."

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Huysan
Huysan
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I think it's Spanish grammar. "Of course that it's me."

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SamuelOrr

"me" is wrong. The english verb to be does NOT take a direct object. Therefore when you answer the phone the correct statements are "It is I" or "this is she" or "this is he" and Not "ME", "HER" or "HIM". Neither is it ever correct to say "It is us" nor "it is them" !!!!!

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Huysan
Huysan
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SamuelOrr: you are grammatically correct. However, in spoken English "it's me" is used by majority. I never heard anyone say "it's I" or "it's he". Language is dynamic.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mjmar212

The joke is when St. Peter answers the knock on heaven's door and says "Who is it?" The person answers "It is I". St. Peter says "Oh, no, not another English teacher."

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lrtward
Lrtward
Mod
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I say "This is she" when I answer the phone and they ask for me.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/whit1016

I was also taught to say "this is she."

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Kenoryn

Joehhendrickson, maybe it's because you're male they think it's odd that you say "this is she"... ;)

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/joehhendrickson

But I get a funny reaction when I say "This is she." Maybe people are more accepting of formal grammer from women.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MinombreesDJ

I do too. I'm surprised that Huysan never heard anyone say that.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/stcroixcounsel

Language is dynamic but there are many people who use the correct form for this.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Hoja.de.Arce
Hoja.de.Arce
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That's right, most people use the correct form: "It is me".

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/FredSmith666

I say "it is I" all the time.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Hoja.de.Arce
Hoja.de.Arce
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He's not "grammatically correct", he's only taking the point of view of the false logic of a prescriptionist. Will he next tell you the French are wrong to say "c'est moi" and that they should really be saying "c'est je"?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Sherry_Taylor

That is because the majority of Americans are ignorant of their own language. I always say "It is I". "It is me" speaks to poor educational quality.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Klgregonis
Klgregonis
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Well, the majority of the VERY well-educated people I know say it's me most of the time - they probably wouldn't write it, but they say it. I am talking PH.D and MA degrees here, including my own degree in linguistics. Assuming people who use it is me are poorly educated is a tad --- arrogant?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SamuelOrr

If the majority ever come to believe that 2 plus 2 equals 13, the correct answer will still be 4. I prefer to speak and write in a manner that is grammattically correct. I do not much care that the ignorant masses are happy wallowing in their own ignorance. I am reminded of the aphorism "He who knows not that he knows not is a fool."

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/TheGandalf
TheGandalf
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It may interest you to know that there's no such thing as a real "correct" language. Language is however people speak it, and has always been evolving and always will. What was correct 50 years ago may be declining in usage today and might not be correct at all 50 years from now.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Klgregonis
Klgregonis
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This is a Spanish course, not an English course. Normal spoken English should be acceptable, even though it does not fit the stilted Latinate form of antiquated grammar books. Sorry, from the point of view of those who study how language is actually USED, you are like King Canute commanding the tides.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Huysan
Huysan
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Have fun trying to be grammar police every time someone say "It's me". I don't see this discussion going any further. Let's agree to disagree.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/whit1016

Math is absolute; language is not.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/eGhost57
eGhost57
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Grammar is subjective. 2 + 2 = 4 and always will because of the underlying properties given to those numbers. Words however are completely arbitrary and redefined continuously throughout human history. If they weren't we'd still have to grunt at each other to fulfill some caveman grammarians utopian fantasy.

Speak all you want in the "proper" way but if the majority of the speakers of English speak one way it is the new normal, and the way you are speaking becomes archaic. Don't think so? Then by all means start speaking Middle English, or Old English, or go back to grunting.

I begeth thy pardon, thou hast strucketh a nerve.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/miza713

The purpose of language is communication. Therefore, if the majority favors an idiomatic expression, that expression should logically be considered correct, even if it does not follow previous grammatical conventions. If one insists upon adhering to dated rules, they may find that these rules hinder communication, therefore making them moot. In my opinion, practicality should come before ideology.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Kenoryn

SamuelOrr, it may seem that there is a "correct" form of language from the limited perspective of our lifetimes, but consider that, for example, it used to be correct to capitalize all nouns. I note that you do not do this, and therefore you've accepted at least one adaptation to the language.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/GaelBraxton

IT IS THEY??? sounds better to your ear?? I've never heard it spoken once and have never seen it in print in my 76 years. What part of the US is you frum?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/miza713

I'd also like to amend my statement that I should have said "colloquialisms" as opposed to "idiomatic expressions" as you will no doubt point out that I've made a mistake by using the wrong term. Also, upon seeing a post further down, I have concluded that perhaps your views about fornication and smoking dope explain why you're such a stick in the mud. That is all.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/bigharrymonkey

I'm with SamuelOrr on this one. There needs to be one set of grammatical rules and we have to be careful to adhere to them. Otherwise, over time the language may branch off into various dialects.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/FredSmith666

Yes, Yes, Yes. "I" is a subject pronoun and must follow the linking verb "to be, am is are was etc."

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ChrisWhatever

You are so right technically. However you are also so wrong when it comes to normal speech.

Sometimes, no-one speaks correctly any more.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Trevie3

In modern English, predicate nouns take the objective case, ya dingus!

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Hoja.de.Arce
Hoja.de.Arce
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"Me" is correct and "I" is flat out wrong. In modern English "I" is only acceptable when explicitly the direct subject of a verb, in all other cases only "me" is acceptable. "Who wants gum?" "Me!" or "I do!", but never "I!", which is simply unEnglish. It's the same thing in French: "C'est je" is simply gibberish.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/GKFX
GKFX
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"I" is not "flat out wrong"; it is declining (especially in informal usage), and will probably be wrong some day, but it hasn't died yet.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/GKFX
GKFX
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@Hoja.de.Arce Google Ngram Viewer allows you to resolve these "correctness" debates based on frequency of use. The most popular one on the graph is the most accepted one in written text. From 1800 to about 1980, "it is I" is the most common of "it is I", "it is me" , "it's me", "it's I". At that point, "it's me" takes over, but "it is I" remains in second place until today. http://bit.ly/1vg7lOZ

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/michaelheuton0

Of course it is I was "corrected" as wrong, and I lost a heart. It was necessary to point out that error to the corrector.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Hoja.de.Arce
Hoja.de.Arce
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Find me a native speaker who didn't have to be taught "It is I" in school and you may have a point. "It is I" is not "declining", it is unnatural English based on the false logic of prescriptive grammarians.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/FredSmith666

So you would say, "Me wants gum"? Me doubts that.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mistico19

I read in one of the other comments that the word "que" could be placed in when a sentence "could" be considered complete. Por ejemplo. "Por supuesto. Soy yo." This is grammatically correct but extremely awkward. Rather than this choppy statement you would more than likely hear "Por supuesto que soy yo." I hope this was of a help.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/joehhendrickson

Que is used as a conjunction introducing a clause. English requires a conjunction between clause but not when a phrase precedes a clause. That's why people are adding an "is" to make the phrase a verb to illustrate the use in English.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/oletange

How would you say: "Of course I am"?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/carlyrox

Did anyone ever answer this question? I'd like to know, too.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MikeyDC65

You could say either «Por supuesto que sí» or «Claro que sí».

While that is obviously not a word for word translation, it is the correct way to respond with the same sentiment.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/doolaney

Those both mean "yes, of course" but do not include the translation for the second part about "it's me".

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/TheGandalf
TheGandalf
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I think that would simply be "Por supuesto que soy" or "Por supuesto que yo soy".

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/LoriQuaid
LoriQuaid
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At first I was thinking that "Of course I am" should be accepted, but after further thought I realized it is short for "Of course I am (doing something)". For instance, someone asks, "Are you going?" and you answer, "Of course I am" with the word "going" understood from context. So now I understand why "Of course I am" doesn't work with the Spanish word "soy."

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SusanBraddock

What about 'are you English?' 'Of course I am'? Could you not use soy in the answer there? Though "Por supuesto que sí" would still be correct.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/sahilsingla112

Very good. That expains the translation "por supuesto que si". As i believe "si" is used for asserting an action and so is the sentence "ofcourse i am".

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Zoochz

Why is "Of course I am" appropriate? Also, what does "Of course I am me" even mean...

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mirriel
mirriel
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When somebody looks at your photo and asks you: "Is that you?" You say: "Por supuesto que soy yo."

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/sabocat
sabocat
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in my opinion, that should be correct.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lisakeenan2

Why not 'of course I am myself'? It's more grammatically correct than 'of course I am me'.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Hoja.de.Arce
Hoja.de.Arce
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Because the sense of "soy yo" in English is "It's me", not "I am myself"—otherwise you would be correct.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/noeye

"Of course it's me." was accepted, although it was only my wild guess. I'd appreciate some explanations here...

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MikeyDC65

That is exactly what it means.

Por supuesto = Of course. "Por supuesto" is often followed by que just like "claro" particularly in declarative statements like this.

Soy = I am. The fact that "soy" is already conjugated into first person makes the addition of yo add emphasis.

So, literally it translates to "Of course that I am me", but in English we say "Of course it's me" as you instinctively know from your wild guess. Trying to translate "Of course it's me" literally to Spanish («Por supuesto es yo») sounds as odd to Spanish speakers as "Of course that I am me" sounds to English speakers.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/brandons132

Couldn't have put it better myself.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SamuelOrr

And you could not be more wrong. 2 and 2 equals 4. The correct answer will always be four even if an ignorant majority comes to believe that it is five.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Klgregonis
Klgregonis
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My goodness. Now using language in a way you don't approve of equates to criminal behavior. Insults will get you nowhere.

According to the MERRIAM-WEBSTER DICTIONARY OF ENGLISH USAGE, " "The choice between ""It is I" and "It's me" is a choice not between standard and nonstandard usage but between formal and colloquial styles Trimmer & McCrimmon 1988" " and "Clearly, both the " It is I" and " It's me" patterns are in reputable use and have been for a considerable time. It is I" tends to be used in more formal or more stuffy situations. "It's me" predominates in real and fictional speech and in a more relaxed writing style. " The entry is rather long, so I haven't quoted the whole thing, but you can probably find the reference at your library. Look up "It's me". The usage, and the controversy about the usage, go back to the early 18th century, at least.

I believe in teaching DESCRIPTIVE usage of the language. It makes communication a lot easier than teaching forms that are "correct" but never used in normal conversation. It is a philosophy, with which you are free to disagree.

In general, if a majority of a population uses a construction, a word, or a pronunciation, it is considered correct by linguists. I have a Masters in linguistics. We are definitely coming from different directions, and could argue this until Doomsday without coming to a conclusion.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MrHazard
MrHazard
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Much of the debate on this forum is about where you stand on the grammar map. Descriptivists want usage to dictate what is "correct." This can reach absurd lengths when decriptivists demand that usage be the only yardstick.

On the other hand, extreme prescriptivists often lean on made-up rules from a couple of hundred years ago ("couple hundred"?—watch the grammarians have a go at that one!) and denigrate anything that isn't "correct," meaning it has deviated from their grammar-school inspired rule book.

Read Garner's "Making Peace in the Grammar Wars," for an intelligent middle ground. Garner is a relaxed prescriptivist who gives the green light to "it is me."

Read Pullman, a devoted descriptivist, who opts for "It is me" but says in one of his books, "There will be no ridicule of it is I in this book."

Both dedicated descriptivists and prescriptivists have hauled this debate over the coals. Some of the most respected from both camps (e.g. Pullman, Garner) are saying "let it go." Move on.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MrHazard
MrHazard
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Thanks for the thoughtful reply—yes we better stop soon as we may be straying from learning Spanish here. However, grammar is important and it affects how we look at second languages.

I teach budding journalists in a college, so formal language and casual language (code-switching) is important to understand. The better we understand it in our own language, the better we can map it onto a second language.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SamuelOrr

I was being purposely provocative and the post purposely invoked some hyperbole. I will tell you that I try to speak and write the way that I was taught. "It is me", I admit has come to sound more normal than "it is I" but "It is her" or "it is him" is repugnant to my ear. In contrast "it is them" is commonly heard, but "It is they" sounds better to my ear. It seems to me better to both learn and to teach formally correct grammar and to recognize what is "colloquial" versus what is prescribed by formal rules of grammar. It is discouraging when trying to teach someone how to write a sentence to find out that they do not know the difference between transitive and intransitive verbs, between adverbs and adjectives, between prepositions and conjunctions, between the active and the passive voice, between objective and subjective pronouns etc. etc. I had two years of Latin which was mandatory, and those two years of Latin have been invaluable in helping me learn Spanish. It is a treat to converse with a linguist but sad that many if not most students today would have no understanding of our discussion. I think what passes for education today in the USA is disgraceful. Finally, my goal in learning Spanish is to be able to read, speak, and write like a highly educated Spaniard, and not like a semi-literate street person. Of course, I want to know and understand colloquialisms, but have no desire to incorporate them in my writing or speaking patterns. If people are taught technically correct and highly structured grammar, they will inevitably pick up slang and colloquial expressions along the way, but the converse of this proposition is not true.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Klgregonis
Klgregonis
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SamuelOrr: I don't see a reply button on your reply, but thanks. We probably should find a different forum for this conversation, however, unless others are interested. Facebook comes to mind. I do agree that learning grammar terms and usage is important as abasis for improving writing skills, as is learning how to code switch from colloquial to formal English. As a volunteer, most of my students are adults trying to communicate better in the community, so colloquial English is more appropriate. I teach a few grammar terms so I can explain things to them more easily, but I have to focus on the practical, like how to talk to the doctor or how to handle a conversation with their child's teacher. If I were teaching college or high school students, I'd probably be much more formal. Code-switching again.
My goal in Spanish is to be able to read well for pleasure, use Spanish as a bridge to English for my students, and communicate when I travel. I actually want to learn Mexican, specifically norteño, colloquial Spanish, because I like to play with dialects. Spanglish fascinates me, since it is a work in progress, and differs from place to place in the US.
Do you use Facebook?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/FredSmith666

Since Spanish does not distinguish between the objective and subjective "I", it solves the entire controversy above.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Klgregonis
Klgregonis
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Language DOES NOT EQUAL math. Language IS NOT LOGICAL. I know the "logic" is "intransitive verb takes subject case pronoun" but -that is A: really old B. Probably comes from a period during the 17th or 18th centuiry when there was an attempt to impose Latinate grammar on English English GRAMMAR structure is more Germanic than Latin. c: No more :"logical" than saying that the rule is "use the object case pronoun after a verb" D. Sounds wrong with "It is," (you admit it yourself) although it sounds a little better with "This is" And no, I don't think "between he and I" sounds correct.

Whether something is right or wrong depends largely on the dialect (used as a scientific term) spoken. As long as we are not talking about one of the real outliers, we need to accept these differences. If you want to say, "It is I" , fine. Just don't try to say it is the only correct option.

I'm sure there are a few things in the Spanish we are being taught that could be argued with by Spanish grammar Nazis

Question - Do you say "I feel good" or "I feel well", "I am fine" or "I am well" when asked "How are you?"

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SamuelOrr

So when you are diagramming sentences, you would tell your students that "It is me" and "It is her" or "it is him" or"it is them" is OK?? I sincerely hope that your comments are not serious. A lot people fornicate and smoke dope but those actions are wrong, as are your feeble attempts to justify the use of "direct object" pronouns with forms of the verb "to be'". I graduated high school in 1961 and we all learned that forms of the verb "to be" take subjective pronouns. Unfortunately grammar is little taught these days and in many schools it is forbidden to be taught. Therefore it is no wonder that students have no idea of how to write coherent sentences with the result that the language continues to be debased,

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/kes05d

Dude, it's going to be okay. I edit in English for a living, and "it's me" vs. "it's I" doesn't bother me at all. Why should it bother you so much you're giving yourself angina? It's a bit antiquated anyway. Anyone saying "it's I" sounds like they own a duchy by birth, or are a member of the Three Musketeers.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/kes05d

Eh, incorrect usage of possessives bothers me, as well as the incorrect usage of "your" and "you're" or "their", "they're", and "there." "Us is friends" would definitely bother me, even in spoken language (which is what we are talking about here), but I think you're just being snarky with that one. I'm naturally good at grammar. I really enjoy it, and I'm good at my job (not that I really need to justify myself to you), but there's a big difference between spoken and written language. It is, and should be, fluid and dynamic, as others above have stated. The rules are there to enforce consistency, for sure, but nailing a language down completely means that it will remain stagnant. I'm sure those who spoke Old English would have a great deal to say about the grammar rules we hold so dear today, perhaps even as vehemently as you do.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SamuelOrr

Your probably are not bothered by anything. You probably aren't bothered by "me and him" go to the show, or by "us is friends"! People who think as you do debase the language and the culture. I concede that "It is I" sounds funny but that is only because so many Americans, many of them teachers, are lazy and ignorant of how to speak or how to write properly. I would not want you teaching my children, nor would I hire you as an editor.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/windstream467

in English we never say "of course is i" .

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/tu.8zPhLD72zzoZN
tu.8zPhLD72zzoZN
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You are forgetting "que" "Of course that is I." Perhaps you could make a case for "Of course I am that." depending on a previous sentence.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AmitDash
AmitDash
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Of course we do! We say "of course it is I" in the standard way and "of course it is me" colloquially (more prominently heard amongst the US speakers)

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lphoenix

You're correct, AmitDash. Although "it is I" would be much more often heard in speech in Great Britain, among the more highly educated speakers, it still is taught in English grammar as the correct way. And then forgotten or ignored, to the point where "it is me" does sound more natural, and is the way it is usually said, particularly in the United States. But then there are many examples of absolutely wrong usages becoming standard in the U.S. in recent decades, to the point where even the "best" publishers allow these usages when they edit books, and newspapers adopt the terms too. Two egregious examples of this are the use of the word "snuck" -- a word that does not even exist no matter how many people use it -- when the actual past tense of the verb "to sneak" is "sneaked." And an entire generation of English speakers has no idea that this is the case. The conjugation is no different than the verbs "to peak" or "to creak" or "to leak" -- all of the verbs spelled with an "eak" add "ed" to the core verb to form the past tense. That's the grammatical rule, and how "snuck" ever came to be accepted is a mystery, but 30 years ago only the most ignorant and uneducated classes said this, and to say it identified them immediately as uneducated. The other example is the confusion between "to lie" (as in telling a lie, or lying down on a bed) and "to lay" (as in placing an item down on a bed) -- so that now people say "I am laying down" which sounds horrible to any English major. And this is also allowed by editors, and in fact I think a lot of editors today have no idea of the correct usage of either "sneaked" or "lay." To me, when a language has a very precise term to describe a very precise concept, we should use it, so our actual meaning is clear.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Klgregonis
Klgregonis
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This discussion points out some of the differences between the point of view of English majors and linguists. English majors seem to use grammar books as their reference point. Grammar books, by their nature, have to reduce the language to a set of rules, which may or may not reflect actual and often long standing usage by speakers of a standard dialect. Linguists use the language itself as their reference point. When they write a grammar of a language it includes the exceptions as accepted usage. These are dialect specific. A good linguistic analysis of a language would include a notation about social stigma for certain usages. I think Duolingo does a pretty good job of meeting in the middle (witness the conversation about drank vs drunk elsewhere). Alas, language is not a logical construct, and is constantly changing, and therefore you can seldom determine whether or not a construct is correct by using logic.

Note: I don't agree that I too and It is I are wrong, but they sound stilted and as if the person using them is a trying to impress others by their use. I view things like snuck instead of sneaked as simply exceptions to the rule, and an instance of language change. Editors do have style books, which they are supposed to use, so I suspect that the use of snuck and the conflation of lay and lie are covered and allowed in those style books.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jeremyk1982

klgregonis: I feel the same. Very well said.

I understand that we are here to learn languages. The Duolingo comments section is a good place to inform others about formal usage. I do not particularly appreciate those who are persnickety to the point of condescension and contempt for others. Calling people fools because they say "it is me" rather than "it is i" is obscene. Maybe those particular people were taught to perceive the world through an egotistical point of view. Consequently, they are usually evaluating another person's worth based on an imaginary spectrum of inferiority to superiority. Continually projecting an appearance of superiority becomes important. Sadly i'm not certain i can easily achieve rapport those surly types. I did not finish my education.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AmitDash
AmitDash
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Greetings IPhoenix, what I see here is a very insightful and elaborate comment! I am not an expert in the English language but I love learning and researching grammatical structures of various languages all around the world. And as you say it sounds very bad to any educated person in their native language to hear something that deviates in a big way from the laid down grammatical rules [notice my use of the verb "lay" here :) ] Well thank you IPhoenix for your comment, I hope we discuss more on grammar and linguistic tidbits in the coming days.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Hoja.de.Arce
Hoja.de.Arce
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Unfortunately, lphoenix, you have your facts confused. "It is I" is as incorrect in English as "C'est je" is in French—it's simply wrong, yet, like the "split infinitive" bogeyman (which was never incorrect and has a long pedigree), it somehow worked its way into certain grammar courses as "correct". For the most part, North Americans have not really bought into this prescriptive nonsense, but the British still seem to be largely in its thrall—making the learning of their mother tongue as much a chore as learning a second language.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ScubaDyer

We only say "it is I" in good English. The uneducated say "it is me."

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/windstream467

you are right about the it is i, i missed the it, but i didn't know that it is me is incorrect.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Noesmi3

My translation: "Of course I am myself" The program marked this as incorrect, "myself" being incorrect, and "me" being correct. I would like to understand why. I think if a person said this sentence in English, myself or me would both make sense. What is the difference between myself and me?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Hoja.de.Arce
Hoja.de.Arce
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The Spanish carries the English sense of "it is me". "It is me" and "I am myself" do not have the same meaning, do they?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/BloodyMoose

So how would you say "I am myself" in Spanish?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Hoja.de.Arce
Hoja.de.Arce
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"Myself" is "yo mismo", but I'm not confident enough in my Spanish to say whether "Soy yo mismo" is what Spanish speakers would actually say.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/tu.8zPhLD72zzoZN
tu.8zPhLD72zzoZN
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Myself is often used reflexively. For example "I wash myself; I dress myself; I catch myself saying the oddest things." or for emphasis. "I myself will be going to see your teacher tomorrow." or after prepositions in sentences in which I is also mentioned. "I wanted to do that all by myself.", As for myself, I don't like it one bit." or even to indicate your regular healthy persona "I just don't feel like myself today."

Keep in mind that something that is reflexive in English might not be in Spanish and vice versa. Certain prepositional expressions may be worded completely different in Spanish. "me", "yo mismo", "mí mismo", and sometimes it just isn't used with a particular verb.

http://spanish.about.com/od/pronouns/a/reflexive_verbs_pronouns.htm

http://context.reverso.net/translation/english-spanish/I+am+myself.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/BloodyMoose

I'd like to know that, too. Does anybody have an answer for this?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/CodyLamarc
CodyLamarc
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They should just translate it as for sure

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/LauraReger

Why not "sure, it is me"?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/joseph.lon

I was always taught that the reason one says "It is I," rather than "It is me," is because there is an understood part to the sentence that is not spoken, and that is "who is speaking." Thus, the entire sentence is English is actually "It is I who is speaking." You would never in a million years say "It is me who is speaking" because me is an object pronoun, not a subject pronoun. I is the subject pronoun and is used because it refers to the person performing the action of the verb, i.e. "I am speaking." Me is an object pronoun and it refers to the person that the action of a verb is being done to, or to whom a preposition refers. "Someone is speaking to me." So, if you say "It's me," it doesn't make sense. But people say "It's me" all the time, and they use "me" for "I," all the time, particularly with comparatives. "She is better at playing soccer than me," is what is normally said, for example, and is well understood, even though it technically makes no sense. Most of us have been taught to say, "She is better at playing soccer than I." The understood part of the complete sentence would be: "She is better at playing soccer than I am at playing soccer." But no one says all that, usually, and even the proper way is a sort of contraction with "understood" unspoken clauses. We all forget what the unspoken part is, and we go with what we hear. Most Americans don't know the difference between me and I.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/tu.8zPhLD72zzoZN
tu.8zPhLD72zzoZN
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In "She is better at playing soccer than I am at playing soccer." the word "than" is used as a conjunction, but it can also be used as a preposition "She is better than me." is perfectly correct in this case in which "me" is the object of the preposition "than". http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/than?show=0&t=1421567272

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Hoja.de.Arce
Hoja.de.Arce
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You were taught wrong. It's the same in French as it is in English—you say "c'est moi" and not "c'est je". The convoloted logic of prescripted grammarians does nothing to improve your ability to communicate—it only makes you sound unnatural. Ditch it and speak the language as it actually is.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mbulgin

I don't think the point is whether "It is me" is perfect English, the point is that "It is I" should also be excepted, especially since it is grammatically correct.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Valiantlena

Why is it soy yo and not yo soy. I just a little confused on the placement of the words.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ktgaston

I had the same question -- my best guess maybe is that it's really "yo soy yo" with the first "yo" dropped like they do? Then the 2nd "yo" becomes the subject not the pronoun? Can someone tell me if this is correct?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ashi97

"Que soy yo" = "It's me" : It's a little confusing...

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/royale1223

'Of course I'm me' works

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ozanaydin1
ozanaydin1
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I give an answer to that question like that "Of course that i am". And it says "of course that is I " . That is I ? Which type of sentence is that ? i've laughed a lot.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AmitDash
AmitDash
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Is "Of course, that is I" or more colloquially "Of course, that is me" also correct? What I am asking is whether "que" translates to "that" or "it" going by the Spanish grammar?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/hisnaps

It is I. The verb to be always needs the subjective. Many people use the subjective and objective cases incorrectly. Ex:" Who will you vote for?" The correct way is, "For whom will you vote?" line 14 Bob Adams

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/FaridSalehi

That does not make any sense, because no one would say " I am me" . The better translation will be " It is me".

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/michaelheuton0

"Of course it is I". The verb to be takes the same case before and after.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SusannaEDavis420

I keep trying to translate this as "Of course I am" because earlier in the lesson we had "Por supuesto que no" translated as "Of course not" ignoring the que. Where am I going wrong here? Thanks in advance for any help!

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/owenms02
owenms02
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In this sentence there is "soy yo" which means "I am me". I am pretty sure that the only time it means I am is in "I am?" or "I am!".

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SusannaEDavis420

Thank you for helping me, owenms02. I looked this up on the Web. You are right.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/GaloValiente

DL says "Of course it is me" is a correct solution, but this is wrong -- "It's me of course"?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SusannaEDavis420

Could you just say soy without the yo? Doesn't soy contain the yo?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Hoja.de.Arce
Hoja.de.Arce
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The sentence already has dropped the "yo"—the full sentence would be "Yo soy yo".

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SusannaEDavis420

Andrew.mci I see that now that you've pointed it out. In fact this makes the whole phrase more understandable. ¡Gracias!

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AveryHD

Why do they use que?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/red_viper13

Of course and for sure must be same

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ChrisWhatever

Are they? I'm from the UK and I would use them differently. "Of course" to me means it is a normal thing ,it goes without saying .It emphasizes someone's agreement "of course" or disagreement " of course not".

"For sure" to me means it is definite, certain and free from doubt.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AveryHD

I've seen another instance on Duolingo where Desde luego is also used for "Of course" .

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RtaRudaity

"Of course that is me" - accepted, "Of course it is me" - accepted, "Of course that it's me" - marked a mistake. Ideas? Is it grammatically correct?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Klgregonis
Klgregonis
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Of course that it's me is simply not a correct English sentence. That and it both refer to the same undefined subject, and we would use only one or the other, not both.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Whiteking2

M.Bison screams OF COURSE!

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/camomma9552

bcwarne: I still don't think we got a good answer as to why que is in this sentence. Can you say, por supuesto es yo?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AveryHD

So does "que soy yo" by itself means "It is I" or "It is me"?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Nombre1st

There has been quite a bit of discussion with this sentence. But my question is related to the "que". I think I have just forgotten - but how come there is no accent on the "e" of "que"? Am I right to think that there's only an accent when "que" is in a question? (I should know this one - but I'm second guessing myself and getting confused).

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jessemccarthy27

In my whole 33 years of life I have never said, "Of course it is me." But maybe I haven't lived long enough. O tal vez sólo soy yo. :)

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MasterEntmoot

I feel like the translation should be "Por supuesto es yo". Am I wrong to think that?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ChrisWhatever

Yes. It goes 'yo soy, tu es...' So when talking about yourself, you need to say 'yo soy' or just 'soy'

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/HannahRome1

Who talks like this? And what is with the useless words?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Klgregonis
Klgregonis
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Do you mean useless words in English, or in Spanish?

3 years ago
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