"She drinks milk before the woman."
Translation:Ólann sí bainne roimh an mbean.
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Why is there an 'm' before bean? I got this wrong because I didnt know there was one.
Does Eclipsing always take precedent over Lenition? The woman: an bhean; Before the woman: roimh an mbean.
It's because of the preposition + singular definite article combo. You'll even see it with masculine nouns. However, that combo does lenite in Donegal Irish (roimh an bhean). But, basically, it's not 'taking precedence', it's just a different environment that leads to it.
Rather, “However, that combo does lenite in Donegal Irish”. The example, of course, is correct.
I was marked wrong for the below so reported it. I understand the lesson is in urú but shouldn't it be ok to use a Séimhiú in this instance (in the Ulster dialect at least)?
Ólann sí bainne roimh an bhean
You tell me to check the hints. Then give a wrong answer. No sign of the correct answer. Not very nice.
I would say mbean as 'man'; and pronounce bhean as 'van' because the bh is said as v.
is this before, as in front of ? .. if it was in advance of, (before) then wouldn't sular be a better option.. ?
sula only occurs immediately before a verb, and bean isn't a verb. Sular is only used with a paste tense verb.
Ah ok, so that's how you differentiate between "he drinks" and "she drinks." (and with all verbs, I assume). Thanks!
