"She drinks milk before the woman."
Translation:Ólann sí bainne roimh an mbean.
Why is there an 'm' before bean? I got this wrong because I didnt know there was one.
Does Eclipsing always take precedent over Lenition? The woman: an bhean; Before the woman: roimh an mbean.
It's because of the preposition + singular definite article combo. You'll even see it with masculine nouns. However, that combo does lenite in Donegal Irish (roimh an bhean). But, basically, it's not 'taking precedence', it's just a different environment that leads to it.
Rather, “However, that combo does lenite in Donegal Irish”. The example, of course, is correct.
I was marked wrong for the below so reported it. I understand the lesson is in urú but shouldn't it be ok to use a Séimhiú in this instance (in the Ulster dialect at least)?
Ólann sí bainne roimh an bhean