"¿No beberás más hoy?"
Translation:You will not drink more today?
Hey, it's a different language. It isn't good English, but it's fine Spanish and sounds that way to Spanish speaking ears, I imagine. How do you think they'd handle "I ain't gonna drink no more today?" "What, you ain't drinkin' no more today?" The words aren't, and never will be, a one-to-one match.
This is perfectly fine and correct and standard English. What part sounds incorrect? The auxiliary verb is used correctly; the sentence has a subject and verb that agree with each other; the adverb's position make sense; the object is placed after the transitive verb.
Remember "will" can also be translated "going to". So if you don't like "You will not drink more today?" Then try "You are not going to drink any more today?" or slightly more English-y "Aren't you going to drink any more today?" They might that, although I don't know about the "any" being added.
Well technically "going to" would be "vas a beber" rather than "beberás." So it doesn't surprise me that they don't accept it. I was just trying to help rationalize the sentence structure in my previous comment. Sometimes Duolingo wants a literal translation to help you see the difference between specific words or phrases, even though they usually prefer a natural translation. Not trying to disregard my previous comment, just trying to make both sides of the coin known.
I wrote, "Aren't you going to drink more today?" ... and they didn't accept that either.
Also, you commented earlier above, "or slightly more English-y 'Aren't you going to drink any more today?' They should accept that, although I don't know about the 'any' being added." That would be the same as how I answered, which was, as I have stated, "Are you not going to drink more today?" The only difference in my answer, is that I did not add the word "any", and I did not use a contraction for "Are you not".
True, I did state that earlier in an attempt to explain how it would make more grammatical sense in English. However, Duolingo likes to have literal translations so that we understand the essential difference in the phrases, even if we end up translating differently when we consider the phrase figuratively rather than literally. And that I also explained in an earlier message.
¿Tiene este frase el mismo sentido de "tomarás más alcohol?" que tiene en Inglés?