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  5. "Me parece que dejó de llover…

"Me parece que dejó de llover."

Translation:It seems to me that it stopped raining.

December 24, 2012



Dejó has two completely different meanings: "stopped", and "let". If we are to see this word, do we have to use the context to find the true meaing?


Following a verb by "de" can often change its meaning. I think (although I'm not certain) that "dejó" means let, whilst "dejó de" means stopped.


I just checked my Oxford Spanish-English and it seems you are correct. It says "dejar de hacer algo" means "to stop doing something," as you indicate.

Thanks for putting me onto this.


There is a translation parallel to dejar de that is more common in British English than American: "(to) leave off". It means that something ongoing has ended or needs to stop.

So potentially the most literal and correct translation of this phrase would be that "It seems to me that it left off raining". I haven't tried it, and don't recommend it, but I will just put it out there as a way to remember the meaning of the Spanish.


I just tried 'left off' and it didn't work. But I agree that a literal translation suggests it should.


You're absolutely correct, sir.


I know we've been using let/leave for the most part. I am looking for clarification. "dejó de llover" I think has a slightly different meaning. The conjugated verb + de (preposition) + infinitive = stopped raining. Correct?


Are appears and seems synonyms in English. Apparently not? Thanks for the help folks.


Yes, appears and seems are usually synonyms. "Appear" does imply that there is something to see. "Seems" is more general. It looks like it has stopped raining = it appears that it has stopped raining = It seems (that) it has stopped raining.


They can both mean "it looks as if." Appear can also mean "to become visible." The word "seem" would never be used in that sense.

I would also say that when there is a difference, "seems" is probably just a little less certain than "appears." If someone says "that appears to be true," it can often mean something like "it's rather clearly evident that it's true." In that sense, it implies that there's an obvious conclusion. On the other hand, "seems" in the same sentence tends to imply that you believe something to be true even though all the facts may yet not be in.

Of course, as with all language, context and even the intonation of the speaker can completely change the meaning of what's said. If someone says "yeah, right," they mean neither "yes" nor "correct."


I would say so, yes.

I translated it as "It appears to me that the rain has stopped" and it was accepted.


I wrote: "It appears to me the rain stopped" and it was marked wrong. 5/16


Hi, sometimes I angolicize the statement myself and it is marked as wrong..I guess DL wants us to learn the lesson correctly then as we become proficient, in daily use, we can say it the way we want...most people will understand what we mean..


are=ser (to be) Definitely it has stopped raining Seems=me parece Seems is similar to "it appears, to be" It leaves room for error. In the context of this sentence "It seems to me that it stopped raining", one is not quite sure if the rain has stopped or slowed down temporarily.


Adding my two cents much later.

In addition to differences others have noted, seems emphasizes the subject and appears emphasizes the object.

"The object appears blue." I would understand this as describing a quality about the object, that the object itself looks blue.

"The object seems blue." I would understand this as describing a quality about the subject's perception, that it looks blue to the viewer(s).

Although either can be made to emphasize the other by some syntactic strategy ("It appears to me..."; "It itself seems...")


In my Spanish class we're a little ahead of where I am on the skill tree and I learned that the gerund is used to signify -ing by adding -ando to the end of a verb and taking off the ending. Why does llover also mean raining in addition to lloviendo then?


Gerunds are not used as often in Spanish as they are in English.

Frequently, the infinitive verb will play the role of a gerund in Spanish.

Here's a website that lists some of the uses of the infinitive that functions as a gerund: http://spanish.about.com/od/infinitives/a/infinitive_noun.htm

More links at the bottom of the page that might be useful too


I find it interesting that "llover" can be conjugated into all persons, in contrast with "pleuvoir" in French, which can only be conjugated in the third person singular. There are several other verbs like this in French, such as "falloir = to be necessary" and "traire = to milk a cow".

Can anyone who speaks Spanish (and perhaps French) comment on this? I was supprised to find that one can conjugate "llover" as "lluevo = I rain", which doesn't really make sense in English, as only the sky/ the clouds can rain.


According to my Spanish materials/references, "llover" is conjugated in third person singular only (just like "pleuvoir" in French).


llueve - il pleut - it rains

está lloviendo - il pleut - it is raining

Since French does not use a present continuous in the same way as Spanish or English, "il pleut" can mean "it rains" (e.g. "il pleut beaucoup en Angleterre" ("it rains a lot in England")) as well as "it is raining" (e.g. " maintenant, je ne veux pas sortir parce qu'il pleut" ("now I don't want to go out because it is raining")).

Where did you see "lluevo"?



Another solution(Duo): "I think it stopped raining."

My doubt(Mi duda):"Me parece que dejó de llover" = "Creo que dejó de llover"???



Why is "It appears to me that the rain has stopped" marked as incorrect?


"It appears to me that ..." is now accepted, August 2014.

This is also how I would say this in English.


To appear is "aparecer" and it does not share it's meaning with "parecer" (to seem) like it does in English


So when you use the word appear as a synonym for "seem" you use parecer


Thank you JuevesHuevos, for reminding me of the distinction between these two Spanish verbs. It has clarified the matter for me and I believe I will now remember it!


I put "it looks to me that it has stopped raining". I feel like this should have been accepted, but wasn't. Would this be an acceptable translation?


Shouldn't this sentence be in the subjunctive? "Me parece que dejara de llover?"


Apparently no, it should not. "As an opinion and understanding verb, parecer in Spanish needs subjunctive only when the verb is negative." (from http://spanology.com/spanish-lessons-verb-parecer-in-spanish/)

Me parece + indicative No me parece que + subjunctive


not exactly a spanish problem, but somehow I remember that "it stopped to rain" would be a wrong answer, but why?


English uses the gerund in constructions like that, instead of the infinitive ( or as I prefer to think of it, to + the basic verb)


"It looks to me" not accepted? :|


Hmmm, I think in English one would say "it looks to me as if ..." to be the same as "it appears/ seems to me ...". I don't know if it's accepted. It is a very liberal translation, but I aggree that it gets the same meaning across.


When do we use "dejar de" and when do we use "parar?" Are they synonyms?


My rejected answer "It seems to me it stopped raining." Why would "that" be needed or required?


Strict English grammarians would say that you need "that" to join the two clauses together ("it seems to me" is the first clause; "it stopped raining" is the second clause). "That" as used here is a conjunction.

However, it is quite common for native English speakers to drop "that". You aren't wrong, just perhaps more casual. When I write, I sometimes leave "that" out, but if I think that the sentence isn't clearly indicating that there are two clauses, I will put "that" in. For me, it's more about clarity in expressing.

In this case, the "que" in Spanish matches the English "that". They are both used as conjunctions. For learning purposes, leaving "that" in the English translation will help English speakers understand why "que" is in the Spanish.

You can use the "report a problem" button to ask to have your answer accepted.


"It seems to me that the rain has stopped" was not accepted. Does anyone know what I am missing here?


has stopped would be ha dejado. different tense/mood.


My translation of "It seems to me that it has stopped raining" is exactly the same as the translation you provided. The word 'has' does not change the meaning or tense of the sentence, so it is annoying to lose a life over this.


It stopped = dejó de (preterite)

It has stopped = ha dejado de (present perfect)

Adding the has changes it to the present perfect tense with dejado in the past participle form, instead of conjugated in the preterite.

Duo is really picky about this sort of thing. I agree that "It seems to me that it has stopped raining" is a more natural sounding translation, but those are not the words that they gave us to translate, they gave us "it stopped"


Accepted: It seems like it stopped raining.


Why is the verb dejar not in the infinitive


Mi hijo me dijo que dejó de llover :)


It's cool how languages intertwine. I wonder if dejar is related to the English expression of "let up" aka to stop like in "the rain let up." Because then you also "let" things fall in English, etc.. the parallel is nifty.


British English tends to use the perfect 'it has stopped' where American uses the aorist 'it stopped'. Both are valid. So 'It looks like it's stopped raining' is an OK translation.


Why can you not use terminado instead and save the confusion of have to use de to change the meaning of dejo


The trouble with DL it that it tends only to accept turns of phrase I seldom use- you almost need to learn DL English as a third language.

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