"He thinks that he is somebody, but he is actually nobody."

[AJDerr]

How do you say "Harsh" in Dutch?

[xMerrie]

'Wreed'

[Gelaarsd_Schaap]

With the note that 'wreed' ('cruel') has less possible meanings than 'harsh'. See the links for details.

[bmkr]

Why is it "iemand is" and not "is iemand"?

[AlexandreS691013]

yeah Why is that?

[MentalPinball]

Because it's a subordinate clause, and in subordinate clauses all the verbs are placed at the end (of the clause, of course).

[BiljanaMila]

Hij denkt dat hij iemand is, maar eigenlijk is hij niemand --- Is the inversion 'is hij' because eigenlijk is first? What if it doesn't start with it? Would this be correct --- ..., maar hij is eigenlijk niemand? Or should the verb go at the end --- ..., maar hij eigenlijk niemand is?
Can a native pls explain this? Thanks a lot ...

[petered]

Not a Dutch speaker, but I believe the inversion is because of "Hij denkt dat ... " which puts the rest of the phrase up to the comma in a subordinate clause, so verbs go to the end. So "hij is iemand" changes to "hij iemand is".

[awrowhh]

In the first part of the sentence, the verb is placed at the end, because we always use the "catapult structure" after "dat".

Regarding the second part you are correct - there is inversion, because it starts with "eigenlijk" and the verb has to be at the 2nd position. "...maar hij is eigenlijk niemand" is correct.