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  5. "I leave in the morning with …

"I leave in the morning with the boy and I return with the girl."

Translation:Imím ar maidin leis an mbuachaill agus fillim leis an gcailín.

May 16, 2015



Can somebody please explain the difference between imím and fágaim?


"imím" is an intransitive verb and "fágaim" is a transitive verb.


Ok. I had to look up the difference, but from what you're saying: "fágaim mo bhean chéile" means i'm leaving my wife (at home, the store etc.) While "imím mo bhean chéile" means i'm going out for the proverbial pack of smokes.


Go raibh maith agat. Remembering is sceal eile


Could somebody explain the syntax here for me? Is "ar maidin" not a time descriptor? If it is, should it not go after "leis an mbuachaill?" If "ar maidin" isn't a time descriptor, what is it?

Sorry if this is a stupid question, but I am pretty new to this stuff.


It’s not a stupid question; it’s never stupid to seek an answer to a question.

You seem to have understood the sentence’s syntax perfectly well; ar maidin is indeed a time descriptor, and given the lack of a pronomial direct object in its independent clause, should be placed at the end of its clause. Report this as an error when opportunity allows for you.


I had the same concerns and I'm reporting this sentence in bealtaine 2019


Still a problem in Oct 2021.


Go raibh maith agat!


Would the placement of ar maidin potentially change the meaning of the sentence? "I leave with the boy [now? tonight?] and return with the girl in the morning": it would in English. If ar maidin technically should be put at the end of the sentence, what does that do to meaning? What are the possibilities for the translation of that sentence? GRMA


There are two clauses (Imím ar maidin leis an mbuachaill, fillim leis an gcailín) joined with a conjunction (agus) in this sentence. You can recognize the clauses, because they each have a verb and a subject and an object.

Scilling said that ar maidin

should be placed at the end of its clause

not at the end of the sentence.


So he did. Thank you.


Why are so many of you who respond to questions so absolutely knowledgeable about english grammar. Are you learning this too in order to learn Irish?


I think that they, like I, went to school back when grammar was taught. The transition occurred later some places then other. On the other hand, I didn't REALLY learn English grammar until I studied another language (Spanish in my case). I do love the distinction between transitive and intransitive verbs which seems to be maintained in Irish, though not in English, where "Enjoy!", originally a transitive verb was adopted for intransitive use--originally by the restaurant industry, I suspect.


The fágaim solution has "chailín" while the imím solution has "gcailín". Why the difference?


I wouldn't know about the fágaim, what part there would ask for lenition, you'd need to review the complete sentence.

However, "leis an" is one of the prepositions + "an", which require eclipsis = gcailín

See tips and notes:



The correction to my answer gives "fillim leis an chailín" but the suggested answer hear gives "fillim leis an gcailín"?


I forget which is which, but either "gcailín" or "chailín" is correct depending on which dialect of Irish you're using.


so the eclipsis is because of the leis an, , "with the". if it were only "the", an, there woul

so is the eclipsis because the nouns are in the dative case?


In Ulster dialect, aspiration seems to be the method, eclipsis elswhere.

according to this http://nualeargais.ie/gnag/gram.htm?praepos.htm

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