Translation:Imím ar maidin leis an mbuachaill agus fillim leis an gcailín.
Could somebody explain the syntax here for me? Is "ar maidin" not a time descriptor? If it is, should it not go after "leis an mbuachaill?" If "ar maidin" isn't a time descriptor, what is it?
Sorry if this is a stupid question, but I am pretty new to this stuff.
It’s not a stupid question; it’s never stupid to seek an answer to a question.
You seem to have understood the sentence’s syntax perfectly well; ar maidin is indeed a time descriptor, and given the lack of a pronomial direct object in its independent clause, should be placed at the end of its clause. Report this as an error when opportunity allows for you.
The fágaim solution has "chailín" while the imím solution has "gcailín". Why the difference?
Why are so many of you who respond to questions so absolutely knowledgeable about english grammar. Are you learning this too in order to learn Irish?
Ok. I had to look up the difference, but from what you're saying: "fágaim mo bhean chéile" means i'm leaving my wife (at home, the store etc.) While "imím mo bhean chéile" means i'm going out for the proverbial pack of smokes.