The Spanish indirect discourse construction with "oír" is idiomatic and doesn't translate literally into English. In English, infinitives are not used in indirect statements. Usually they are introduced by "that", but can be shortened by switching to object pronoun. "I said that." "She heard that I said that." > "She heard me say that."
As for the Spanish modismo, probably a relic from Latin oratio obliqua (Ea non me audivit dicere illud.) where it made logical sense but Spanish nouns don't have cases and Spanish only has one infinitive form (present tense, active voice) so oír+infinitive is just idiomatic/modismo.
And so yes, "she did not hear me sayING that" should be a perfectly acceptable translation, the Spanish is not precise enough to distinguish between simple/progressive English forms.
In some cases the infinitive with oír isn't even translated into English, e.g. "¿Oíste decir que hubo un terremoto?" can be translated into English simply as "Did you hear that there was an earthquake?", the idea that people are talking about it ("decir") is understood in English.
I can't explain, but maybe this will be helpful. http://grammar.ccc.commnet.edu/grammar/verblist.htm
The answer given was my choice. Yes the hints lead us to think perhaps 'heard' would work. In the negative it just isn't going to work. "saying that" wouldn't be my choice but I think its a gray area.
I think Duo does a great job challenging us to translate the meaning, the idiom, the expression whatever you want to call it. Sometimes I have to rewrite it several times before I get close to the answer. I have suggested they have a new field where we can to these rewrites to practice. What I've read about learning a new language is learn the meaning. If you are competing with others perhaps your perspective is different.
It feels kind of arbitrary which answers are correct here... This sentence simply isn't directly translatable into English, so "she has not heard me say that" is just as much correct as "she did not hear me say that". Maybe it's even more correct because "heard" is past tense as well (which is actually why I selected that trick question answer, or is there another form of past tense we haven't learned and couldn't know about yet?)
In Dutch this simply would be "ze hoorde me dat niet zeggen", which is a correct direct translation. Much harder to learn Spanish on an English website. And my English is not that bad. From my point of view it's getting more and more arbitrary which English answers are deemed correctly and which aren't. If this continues in the next few lessons I really think continuing will be too frustrating... which is too bad :(
RuudHier - "She has not heard" implies that it is possible that she still might hear. "She did not hear" is a different sense; there is no implication that she still might. So, in English, there is a subtle difference between these two tenses. (You are brave to try to learn Spanish on this site.)
Rather than letting the perfect translation be the enemy of the good enough translation, DL should accept either translation.
It doesn't really imply that, does it? If I said "she has not heard me say that yet", it would be a different story. Or am I missing something basic about English? All depending on context of course!
By the way, you're German/Austrian(/Swiss) (judging by your username) right? So you must be just as brave as I am :)
i really hope you, and others needing a different learning-language, will hang in. I understand that DUO is working toward a multi-lingual learning environment: Italian for French speakers, etc. That will be a world-changing opportunity.... we just need to hang in and keep posting our wishlists to the developers... The arbitrary part, is that, but maybe getting better. veel succes
I think that "she did not hear me saying that" is a speaking phrase. When you use "saying that" in sentences you have to put in "was saying that" or "am saying that". In speaking this is left out to make it shorter I think. (spreektaal).
"Did not hear" is something that started in the past and has finished longer than "was saying that". The saying that, implies that it has finished, but more recently. (I am not aware of the rules exactly, im just going by my guts and some rules that I do know) (I am Dutch as well but grew up in America part of my childhood so it's fair to say that I'm fluent like a native)
in conclusion: It definitely sounds more right to say "she did not hear me say that" than "she did not hear me saying that" but I think DL should accept both.
I couldn't figure out what the computer was saying for that one either. When I run into words like this where I can't decipher the computer pronunciation, I like to check on Forvo and see how it's actually spoken by real people.
There were only two for oyo, but neither had the "juh" sound, nor did they start with "oye" instead of "oh." Both were basically "oh yo" with the accent on the "yo."
I am no expert, but in another discussion I read, several posters said that with 2 verbs in a sentence, only the first one is conjugated. The 2nd one is in the infinitive.
Is that what you were asking? In U.S. English we do the same with many phrases, such as "I need to get a passport", or "I told you to go to school", although I realize this question is diifferent. But I'm doing the Infinitives lessons now, so I just assumed it was a rule (I also didn't have to translate this one yet, just repeat it, so I'm not frustrated!).
Generally, only the first verb is conjugated in a Spanish sentence. The others remain in the infinitive. The only way that this changes is if there is a second clause, introduced by a relative pronoun (for example, que, cuando) or a conjunction. (Incidentally, this is the same in English, although if the second clause is simple, we often leave the relative pronoun out. You don't say "I wanted her goes to the beach with me." You say, "I wanted her to go to the beach with me.")
It is the indirect object pronoun that tells you who she heard: me.
Tim, the "did" used with "hear" makes it past tense, like "heard." But when you insert a negative, it would be totally clumsy to say, "She heard not that." (Except in Shakespeare's time, quizás?) Another fellow asked about "had not heard." That would be past perfect, because the "helping"- verb form of the verb "to be" (had) is there, and both are in past-tense forms (had and heard). There are more complex forms with helping verbs, as well, like "would have been helping" or "will have been helping, but I really have been writing for too long, and have written too many words already! Hope you hang in there; you are very good. :-)
Come on man, you can't complain about that. Think of how many different ways we pronounce different letters in English. I means just the vowels have several different sounds, in Spanish they only have one. Also to answer the question, 'll' is usually only 'L' when it is used in a Name, and generally like the 'y' on all other occasions.
There were ten multiple choice alternatives and the correct one, decir, was out of sight at the bottom. How to select decir when I could not see it? I could not get to it by zoom nor by scrolling. I knew it was there because I got this wrong the first time. I finally just picked one of the two numbers of choices I could not see. bad design....