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  5. "Je ne les aime pas tous les …


"Je ne les aime pas tous les deux."

December 25, 2012



"both" can't be used in a negative construction in English like it is here, it needs to be "either" or "neither"


You are correct. I mentioned that in the "Report a problem" area. "I do not like both of them." is not correct English.


I would argue that it is correct English, it's just awkward on its own. I can imagine this phrase being used in conjunction with something else: "I do not like both of them; I only like the one who's nice to me."


That is true, however I don't think that is what the French sentence is saying. I believe the French means that both people are disliked. That being the case, the English is not correct.


This sentence, in french, means that at least one of them is disliked. We need more context to know which case it is (both or only one disliked). But without context I would understand it (NB : I'm a french native speaker) as both of them are disliked.


If that is the correct interpretation, then it sounds to me like the awkward English translation given is in fact the correct translation.


Sorry I can't agree. It is still incorrect in the example you've given. "Both" is never used in this way. It is always "either" or "neither". (I'm a native speaker of English)


I am also a native speaker of English and I maintain that it is acceptable, though awkward on its own. However, it does not mean the same thing as "I do not like either of them" or "I like neither of them" since those imply you dislike both of them. "I do not like both of them" simply means you dislike at least one.


I guess we'll have to agree to disagree then but, as an English teacher, if a student used "I do not like both of them." I would mark it as incorrect.


I agree completely and here we are, 2 months later, and it still says 'I do not like both of them.' It should be 'I do not like EITHER of them' or 'I like NEITHER of them'. I'll try reporting it again. :)


We shouldn't hear the -s at the end of "tous"


agreed. got a bit confused because of that.


Just a note: here you don't pronounce the "s" at the end of "tous". You have to say it as if. You only pronounce it when you say the word alone or at the end of a sentence.


Not only when it's alone or at the end. For example in "Ils sont tous à la maison", you have to pronounce the "s" but in "Ils sont tous les deux à la maison" you don't pronounce it.


That's right. You pronounce the 's' in your first example because it is directly before a vowel.


could 'I don't love them both' be accepted?


That's what I put too but I was marked wrong...


I just answered "I do not love them both," and it was accepted.


But why is there both « les » and « les deux » ? Why the double nouning (one pronoun, one 'normal noun')?


The first "les" is the direct object: "tous les deux", here, is an idiomatic expression for "both of them" and functions more like an adjective modifying the object.


My translation: "I dislike both of them" was also rejected


Francoise1608 is right

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