"Hun spiser overfor sin mann."

Translation:She is eating opposite her husband.

May 25, 2015

40 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/3IRIK

If anyone wonders why overfor sin sounds like "overfoshin", it's because the second "r" in overfor combines with the "s" in sin to make the "sh" sound. Even though the "r" and the "s" are in two different words, they still combine to make the "sh" sound due to their connection.

June 5, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/MidhunUnni

thanks, was just about to ask

February 19, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/giovannilu318047

is this a rule or what? sounds like a strange one...

March 15, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/Norwisle

Properly pronouncing each word by itself would sound very staccato. When speaking it mostly does not matter if words hang together or not. Vær så god” og “Værsågod” would be pronounced the same if one does not intentionally split the wording. I do not think there is a noticeable difference in pronunciation of “forskjell” (difference) and “for skjell” neither. i.e «Han spiser ikke, for skjell liker han ikke» = He does not eat, for shells he does not like. (Yes, I know, the sentence is a bit awkward).

May 6, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/Miss.Nomar

Not an expert, but I read somewhere at some point in time, that an s following an r will always take on "sh" So far haven't noticed any examples inconsistent with this

July 21, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/felixfortytwo

As a further example, my Norwegian friend was called Lars - it was pronounced 'Larsh'.

March 30, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/SanctMinimalicen

It's the pronunciation consistent with the dialect taught be Duolingo.

August 19, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/OlavTryggv

But why is it pronounced like that even in separate words?

November 18, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/Arkilaeus

It is the same in British English. They don't pronounce their "R"s (or at least not as closed as other languages), right? But you'll notice they do when followed by a vowel (yes, even if they are separate words). For example, in "after" the R would not be pronounced, but in "after all", they would pronounce the R. It's just the way they speak. It is the same with Norsk "rs" (even with a space between them).

April 25, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/P-O_D

In french, it's always like that, an 's' with 2 vowels, one on each side, will be pronounce a 'z'. For instance : -Je les ai vu (I have seen them) Will be pronounce : -Jelezaivu

March 30, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/TeemuLabura

What does this mean? Like at the other side of a table, or what?

April 14, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/SanctMinimalicen

Yes.

August 19, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/FedoraTheExplore

thx I was kinda puzzled by this one

July 7, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/nieudany

I find it difficult to distinguish the meaning of "overfor" and "foran", would the correct use be something like:

"Butikken ligger overfor restauranten." [in which "overfor" is used when something is in front of other thing and IS facing that other thing], and:

"Han står foran huset sin." [in which "foran" is also used when something is in front of other thing but is NOT facing that other thing], am i correct?

April 19, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/ThePancakeHouse

That sounds right, although hopefully we can get someone more experienced to check! For me "in front of" would be something that's not facing the other subject/object.

December 13, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/RoJeBo

In previous modules, "mann" has only ever meant "man" so now that it suddenly has to be husband doesn't make sense

May 25, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/Luke_5.1991

I've added "her man" here (because I've heard it used in very informal English), but "husband" is the best translation here, no doubt. This is specifically the man she's married to.

May 25, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/RoJeBo

Is context the only way to distinguish mann=man and mann=husband?

Is it basically when he is in the possession of a woman (or man)?

May 25, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/Luke_5.1991

"Ektemann" means "husband" specifically, but you don't hear it quite as often as "mann" for "husband." Usually it's easy to tell the difference through context, and it usually is through possessive pronouns.

May 25, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/RoJeBo

Alright! Tusen takk, Luke!

May 25, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/LoveTiyore

Why can't it be hennes isntead of sin?

February 24, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/Norwisle

Good question. In Norwegian “sin/sitt/sine” points back to the subject of the sentence, while “hans/hennes/deres” points to something else than the subject. “Hun spiser med sin mann” = “She is eating with her (own) husband” “Hun spiser med hennes mann“ = “She is eating with her (another womans) husband”.

May 6, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/Nekkeli1

I accidentally wrote "she is eating her husband"

February 8, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/Cryos1

Wouldn't 'opposite', in this case, mean the same as 'across from'? That answer wasn't accepted.

May 30, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/Regney
Mod
  • 1960

Both "opposite" and "across from" are equally correct and are accepted.

May 30, 2019

https://www.duolingo.com/Sep780

Does anybody know why husband & man are the same word when woman & wife are different words?

February 14, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/PrimalSSV

I know this is off subject.

But for correct grammar, aren't we supposed to be using object + possession?

I've seen it used both ways since we've learned possession. I'm just trying to learn the absolute correct way

October 10, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/Regney
Mod
  • 1960

No worries, both methods are equally correct. :0)

October 11, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/PrimalSSV

Awesome, thank you!

October 12, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/ssdukej

Does motsatt work instead of overfor?

May 25, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/vildand91

No, not in this sentence. You could say "hun sitter på motsatt side av bordet" (she sits on the opposite side of the table). "Motsatt" IS used to indicate (often polar) differences. "Nei, du tar feil, det er motsatt" (=No, you're wrong, it's the opposite) - so I understand why you ask.

June 1, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/Pikachu257

Shouldn't "She eats the opposite of her husband." be accepted?

August 6, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/vildand91

No, because that sentence has a different meaning. This sentence is about how she is sitting opposite her husband while eating, not that she is eating the opposite food to him. That would translate to "Hun spiser det motsatte av sin mann"

August 9, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/ASkilletFan

What on earth do you mean by the opposite of her husband?

November 25, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/OsoGegenHest

Like he eats Mcdonald's and she eats tofu, or something. It's obviously not what this sentence means.

February 8, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/JRadersma

doesn't opposite need a preposition?

September 9, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/OsoGegenHest

"Opposite" is a preposition.

February 8, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/JRadersma

I do get it now, but back then I thought it would be "opposite to". Thanks for your help!

February 8, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/a.hawkeye

Why it was "sin mann" instead of "mannen sin"?

April 3, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/ThePancakeHouse

You can say both :)

December 13, 2017
Learn Norwegian (Bokmål) in just 5 minutes a day. For free.