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"Yo me voy en seguida."

Translation:I leave immediately.

0
5 years ago

17 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/GerardoAUS

Guys, I am a native speaker. The use of reflexives in Spanish is something that even we find really hard to explain. The fact is that for some verbs it makes a difference between the action being done by the subject to something else or the action being done to the subject by themselves. However, for some verbs, this doesn't work, and it's just used as a way of emphasizing. If I say "Voy a la casa de mi madre" you emphasize on the action of going to the house of your mother. But if you say "Me voy a la casa de mi madre" you emphasize on the fact that you are going away from the place you are. There are more difficult verbs like "reir" (to laugh). You can say just "El ríe" like "he laughs" but if you don't just laugh, but there is something making you laugh, you say "el se ríe de mi cara" for "he laughs at my face". I personally believe that it depends on the verb, even though if you can't use it, the sentence is still ok. This is an idiomatic factor that sometimes doen's have an explanation so you can just get used to this. I find it hard to explain it in English because the only language where I found something similar to this meaning is Japanese, but it's a totally different structure.

19
Reply5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Yodpungtiem

There is no way to explain it. Some verbs, even though are not reflexive, still require the reflexive pronoun. That is all that has to be said about it; nothing about emphasis.

2
Reply5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/GerardoAUS

Ir-Irse, Venir-Venirse, Carer-Caerse, Reir-reirse, Morir-morirse. When the verb can't have an object, the one with reflexive makes an emphasis on the action happening rather than making emphasis on the result. Even though thinking like this fails sometimes, because the usage of reflexive or not is most of the times fixed for certain expressions, this is the closest to a logic approach I can find. As a native speaker I never though about it but that's the easiest way to explain to a foreigner who can't understand. Following this approach, memorizing when to use the reflexive or not becomes more simple.

7
Reply5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/biolinguo
biolinguo
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I agree with the "Emphasis explanation".

Example:

1.- Your mother calls you for supper: "Ven o la sopa se enfriará" (come or the soup will get cool). And you answer: "Voy!" (I go!) Sounds like you go there inmediatly. You emphasize the fact that you go there.

2.- Your girlfriend is discussing with you and she is really angry. Finally she says: "Me voy!" (I go!) Same translation but in this case means that she gets out of the place. She emphasizes the fact that she leaves the place and is not so important where she goes.

1
Reply5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Talca
Talca
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You may be thinking of the "back-to-front" verbs with the indirect object + verb + subject formation. For example, gustar, faltar, molestar, parecer, preocupar, caer... These are not reflexive verbs, but require indirect object pronouns. Here are some sentences to analyze. Le faltan las fuerzas. He lacks the strength. La ropa te parece fea. The clothes seem ugly to you. Tu primo me cae muy bien. I get along really well with your cousin. Me molesta tener que repetirlo.It bothers me that I have to repeat it.

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Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/pkkaster

"Voy" which is the conjugated form of "ir" means to go. By making it reflexive, it becomes to leave, such as: "Me voy" or "Te vas". A reflexive verb is when the verb acts on the subject innacting the verb. You're essentially saying, "I go myself." Does that make sense?

4
Reply5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rocko2012
rocko2012
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I have also read that "me voy" is from the verb "irse" http://www.123teachme.com/spanish_verb_conjugation/irse

1
Reply5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lisagnipura

Hola pkkaster: There are two different verbs here: "ir" and "irse". "ir" means "to go" and "irse" means "to leave". So,using "irse" when you say "Me voy" means "I am leaving". Using "ir" when you say "Voy" means "I go" or "I am going".

0
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Chogas
Chogas
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I don't know why this sentence has 'me' and what is role of 'me' at this sentence. I think 'me' is needless.

1
Reply5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lisagnipura

Hola Chogas: The "me" is part of the verb phrase "me voy" which comes from the verb infinitive "irse". "Irse" means "to leave". "Me voy" means "I leave" or "I am leaving". If you don't have the "me" it changes the meaning. Just plain "Voy" means "I go" or "I am going".

1
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DXabier
DXabier
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Well, "yo me voy" means "I leave" in this sentences and if you omit "me" it is like saying "I go to". For instance:

"(Yo) me voy de la casa" is "I'm leaving home" and "(yo) voy a la tienda" is "I go to the store"

0
Reply5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Talca
Talca
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Chogas, The verb is reflexive. Me is the reflexive first person singular pronoun.

0
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Jeanine
Jeanine
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Was the reflexive concept ever explained by Duolingo?

0
Reply5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MThoriqMalano
MThoriqMalano
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Yes, they did.

0
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mellybutton

Could this also be interpreted as, "I'm going immediately." ?

0
Reply5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lisagnipura

Hola mellybutton: No. That would be "Yo voy en seguida".

1
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/oonamas

why immediately and not now?

0
Reply5 years ago