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  5. "Yo me voy en seguida."

"Yo me voy en seguida."

Translation:I leave immediately.

December 26, 2012


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Guys, I am a native speaker. The use of reflexives in Spanish is something that even we find really hard to explain. The fact is that for some verbs it makes a difference between the action being done by the subject to something else or the action being done to the subject by themselves. However, for some verbs, this doesn't work, and it's just used as a way of emphasizing. If I say "Voy a la casa de mi madre" you emphasize on the action of going to the house of your mother. But if you say "Me voy a la casa de mi madre" you emphasize on the fact that you are going away from the place you are. There are more difficult verbs like "reir" (to laugh). You can say just "El ríe" like "he laughs" but if you don't just laugh, but there is something making you laugh, you say "el se ríe de mi cara" for "he laughs at my face". I personally believe that it depends on the verb, even though if you can't use it, the sentence is still ok. This is an idiomatic factor that sometimes doen's have an explanation so you can just get used to this. I find it hard to explain it in English because the only language where I found something similar to this meaning is Japanese, but it's a totally different structure.

April 20, 2013


There is no way to explain it. Some verbs, even though are not reflexive, still require the reflexive pronoun. That is all that has to be said about it; nothing about emphasis.

May 2, 2013


Ir-Irse, Venir-Venirse, Carer-Caerse, Reir-reirse, Morir-morirse. When the verb can't have an object, the one with reflexive makes an emphasis on the action happening rather than making emphasis on the result. Even though thinking like this fails sometimes, because the usage of reflexive or not is most of the times fixed for certain expressions, this is the closest to a logic approach I can find. As a native speaker I never though about it but that's the easiest way to explain to a foreigner who can't understand. Following this approach, memorizing when to use the reflexive or not becomes more simple.

May 2, 2013


I agree with the "Emphasis explanation".


1.- Your mother calls you for supper: "Ven o la sopa se enfriará" (come or the soup will get cool). And you answer: "Voy!" (I go!) Sounds like you go there inmediatly. You emphasize the fact that you go there.

2.- Your girlfriend is discussing with you and she is really angry. Finally she says: "Me voy!" (I go!) Same translation but in this case means that she gets out of the place. She emphasizes the fact that she leaves the place and is not so important where she goes.

July 10, 2013


You may be thinking of the "back-to-front" verbs with the indirect object + verb + subject formation. For example, gustar, faltar, molestar, parecer, preocupar, caer... These are not reflexive verbs, but require indirect object pronouns. Here are some sentences to analyze. Le faltan las fuerzas. He lacks the strength. La ropa te parece fea. The clothes seem ugly to you. Tu primo me cae muy bien. I get along really well with your cousin. Me molesta tener que repetirlo.It bothers me that I have to repeat it.

March 25, 2014


"Voy" which is the conjugated form of "ir" means to go. By making it reflexive, it becomes to leave, such as: "Me voy" or "Te vas". A reflexive verb is when the verb acts on the subject innacting the verb. You're essentially saying, "I go myself." Does that make sense?

January 1, 2013


Hola pkkaster: There are two different verbs here: "ir" and "irse". "ir" means "to go" and "irse" means "to leave". So,using "irse" when you say "Me voy" means "I am leaving". Using "ir" when you say "Voy" means "I go" or "I am going".

October 17, 2013


I have also read that "me voy" is from the verb "irse" http://www.123teachme.com/spanish_verb_conjugation/irse

February 7, 2013


I don't know why this sentence has 'me' and what is role of 'me' at this sentence. I think 'me' is needless.

December 26, 2012


Well, "yo me voy" means "I leave" in this sentences and if you omit "me" it is like saying "I go to". For instance:

"(Yo) me voy de la casa" is "I'm leaving home" and "(yo) voy a la tienda" is "I go to the store"

March 13, 2013


Hola Chogas: The "me" is part of the verb phrase "me voy" which comes from the verb infinitive "irse". "Irse" means "to leave". "Me voy" means "I leave" or "I am leaving". If you don't have the "me" it changes the meaning. Just plain "Voy" means "I go" or "I am going".

October 17, 2013


Chogas, The verb is reflexive. Me is the reflexive first person singular pronoun.

September 16, 2013


Was the reflexive concept ever explained by Duolingo?

March 27, 2013


Yes, they did.

November 30, 2013


Could this also be interpreted as, "I'm going immediately." ?

May 24, 2013


Hola mellybutton: No. That would be "Yo voy en seguida".

October 17, 2013


why immediately and not now?

July 17, 2013


That would depend on how you're translating this sentence.

"I leave now" sounds incorrect and very strange.

You could, however, say "I am leaving now" which would sound more natural.

May 15, 2019


"Right now" means the same to me as "immediately"

March 31, 2019


I put i immediately leave. Is this not the same thing as i leave immediately?

April 5, 2019


The placement of adverbs can get complicated in English. This very informative link provides a good sense of the many considerations involved: https://www.espressoenglish.net/position-of-adverbs-in-english-sentences/ In the case of your question, I'd say that the difference is one of emphasis rather than meaning. However, I'd say also that "am leaving" really works better as the translation in either case.

September 15, 2019
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