Jes, a very big difference.
"bongusti" means that something tastes good, "gustumi" means to try how something tastes.
Just by curiosity, does the "-um-" in gustumi means something? Like "to try"?
Because I understand that in bongusti, "bon-" is "good/well" and "gusti" is taste, thus "bongusti" "good taste".
So if "-um-" is "to try", does this mean that adding it to "bon-" to make "bonumi" is now "to try to be good"?
"-um-" is a suffix without defined meaning. You can use it whenever you need a suffix for something and no other one suits.
and "umo" is a noun for something which you don't know what it is.
Also "umi" as a verb is usually used to mean "to hang out".
Why do you need a suffix if you don't need one? I don't understand, why couldn't someone just say "ni gustas teo"?
Because gusti means ‘to cause a sensation on your tongue’, so for instance you can say ‘Teo gustas bone’ = ‘tea tastes good’, i.e., tea causes a good/nice sensation on your tongue. However, you cannot say ‘Mi gustas teon’*, because then ‘I cause a sensation on someone's tongue’ and then somehow ‘teo’ is in the accusative case, which makes no sense; gusti does not take an object.
On the other hand, gustumi means ‘to perceive a taste’ or ‘to try something in order to perceive its taste’. So now ‘Mi gustumas teon’ makes sense, because it means ‘to perceive the taste of tea’ or ‘to try tea in order to perceive its taste’.
Is there a difference between gustas and gustumas?
Could you just swap them? Ni gustas teon. We taste tea. Gxi bongustumas. It tastes good.
Or is one an attribute of what is being tasted (gustas) and one an attribute of what (or who) is doing the tasting (gustumas).
You were right the second time: "Mi ne gustumas bone" is what you'd say if you had a blocked nose, whereas "Mi ne gustas bone" is what you'd say to a monster trying to eat you :)
Thanks. So in English your first example would be "I do not taste well." And your second is "I do not taste good." Interestingly, in the second example, in English, taste is a noun not a verb (do being the verb here) and good being an adjective. Could the latter then be "Mia gusto ne estas bona."?
"taste" in this context is not a noun, it's an infinitive. You don't say "I don't tennis", you say "I don't do tennis". That's because "tennis" is a noun, and in English you can't say use verb + not + noun, you have to use auxiliary + not + infinitive/participle + noun.
As for your question, that is another way of saying it, yes, but not because "taste" is a noun in the sentence, but because the root meaning of "taste" is the same whether it's a noun or an infinitive.
I will accept that my English grammar is not wonderful and have got confused about adverbs before, so might well be wrong about nouns and verbs too. "Do" by itself is a transitive verb. "Taste" (from Chambers dictionary) Noun - The particular sensation caused by a substance on the tongue. (This is the meaning that I had thought I was using.) However, I also accept that you don't "Do" a noun. I was wrong again.
But ... "Good" in (UK English - from various dictionaries including Chambers & OED) is not an adverb but is an adjective. You don't use an adjective to describe the action of a verb, you use it to describe a thing. So since "good" in the sentence is not an adverb and is applying to the word "taste", I had jumped to the (wrong) conclusion that "taste" was being used as a noun.
I'm still (obviously) confused.
"Taste" is also a verb, Davgwynne. It's the action we perform with our tongues. It can be either transitive (telling what we taste) or intransitive (telling how the subject of the sentence tastes to us).
"Do" is really a helping (or auxilliary) verb in this sentence. The main verb is "taste." "Good" is definitely an adverb, modifying the verb "taste." (It answers the question, "How does it taste?")
"Not," in this case, modifies "do taste" by making it negative. So the question being answered is, "How does it taste?" with the answer being "not good." ("Not" is an adverb, modifying "good.")
Does this help?
Is this, "We taste a cup of tea"? or is it like a scenario in a factory where you try some chewing gum and say "We taste a tea flavouring".
Neither: it's tasting an unspecified amount of tea. If it meant "a cup of tea" it would say "tason da teo", and if it meant "tea flavouring" it would say "teguston" (or "tean guston", "guston de teo" etc.). And if you were wondering, "type of tea" would be "tespecon" (or "tean guston", "guston de teo").
I think the accentuation of gustumas is a bit off. Shouldn't the stress be on the second to last syllable, i.e. gusTUmas instead od GUStumas?
The recording sounds OK to me - with the accent on the second-to-last syllable.
Would something like "gustmesuri" (taste-measure) be acceptable for something like this?
It would be gustmezuri. However, this really does not fit the sentence: Measuring has some defined answer; when you taste, you personally get an idea of something, about which you may have an opinion (you can like the taste, etc.). This is not a measurement, because other people who ‘measure’ this probably get a different result.
I don't see how gustsenci makes sense. If you meant gustsensi, then I think this would just be gustumi in the third sense: sperti la guston de io, since sensi means ricevi impreson pere de senso.
@Joffysloffy I realised that right after I wrote the comment so edited it. You're just too quick :)
Hm… I can't really make sense of that, since senti basically means ‘to feel’. Maybe gustsenti would be something like getting due to something you taste, but I really wouldn't know. I'm not sure what the meaning is you're intending.
No, that doesn't seem to make sense. The verb gusti is not a transitive verb; that is, it does not take an object. It just means something like “To cause the perception of taste”. Therefore, you cannot make it passive. Secondly, de teo seems weird as well, as if teo is the actor of gusti (as if it were a transitive verb); you know, just like you'd use de for something like La pilko estas ĵetita de mi = The ball is thrown by me.