"I want most of the bowls, because half of them is not enough."
Translation:Mi volas la plejparton de la bovloj, ĉar duono de ili ne estas sufiĉa.
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Ok, I'm confused. I put "la plejparton da la bovloj" because in the previous sentence it corrected me and put "la plejparto da la francoj". Can someone explain why SOMETIMES it's "de" and other times it's "da", because I simply do not understand.
First - I'm curious where you're seeing this. A little more context might get you a better answer.
I am not convinced that it's possible to make a general rule as you have done here. There are situations where we would say "duono da" and there are situations where we would say "du de". In this particular case de ili is correct because ili refers to la bovoloj and is definite.
I'm not convinced that "du da" is a valid expression. (I'm not convinced that it isn't.) I've looked for an example of it used that way so I can put my answer in context, but I haven't found one yet. If you could let me know what sentence you're looking at and where you're seeing it, I could do a better job of explaining it for you (or of letting you know why the example is wrong, if it's wrong.)