Why not, "Do you want water to drink?"? Does the infinitive have to follow the verb in translation?
içmek istiyor is "want to drink". Your sentence is different. In "do you want water to drink", "water" is the object of the verb "want" and "to drink" is describing the water, that is, "water to drink" as opposed to, say, "water to clean with". In "do you want to drink water", "to drink" is the object of "want". you are saying that you want to drink, and then "water" is the object of "to drink".
I don't know how you'd translate "do you want water to drink", but I suspect you'd use some form of içmek placed before su.
You cannot use the personal ending (-sun) twice in these cases. it only goes on the question particle (mu in this case)
What would be the difference if I were to ask "Do you want a drink of water?"
I would drop "içmek" in that case as it really is the infinitive form. :)
"Do you want to drink some water?" was rejected, though I would consider it more idiomatic English. How would "some water" appear in Turkish?
I would use "biraz" in this case. It has, at least to me, a much more specific distinction as the the quantity you are offering. :)
I am still puzzled as to why "some water" is not an accepted English translation here. Also in "Ekmek yemek istiyorum." Why not "I want to eat some bread"? How would the Turkish be different to add the word "some"? And is it an important distinction? To me the two English forms have basically the same meaning.
That is grammatically correct but it is not a question.
I heard this sentence once in a tv show and they said "Su içmek ister misin?" What is the difference between ister and istiyor?
"Su içmek istiyor musun?" Translation: Do you want to drink water?
Message to Duo's MODS. The word option "water" is missing from the options & "orange" was the only word available to select.
Kind regards. Error reported on the 07/01/2019