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"Generalmente sólo canto para mi hija."

Translation:Generally I only sing for my daughter.

December 26, 2012



wouldn't "Generally only I sing for my daughter" work?


That's a really good question. It's quite a different meaning. In the accepted answer, I sing for my daughter and no one else does. In your version I am the only one who sings for my daughter. So how do you distinguish the two in Spanish?

I think the answer is that you need to emphasise the "I", which would be done as "Generalmente solo yo canto para mi hija".


I think you've misstated this - the two interpretations you've given are synonymous.

I agree with your interpretation of jasaucedo's example, and both of your interpretations apply to it.

For the original Spanish sentence and English translation, I would interpret this as meaning that (generally speaking) I sing for my daughter and I don't sing for anyone else.


I believe you're right, swingophelia.


That's what I put, and they didn't accept it.


in general doesnt work?


That would be "En general".


That would be "por lo general"


I think "In general I only sing to my daughter." is better in English. Or is there some other meaning here that I don't get?


"para" does not mean "to". Singing TO your daughter is not the same as singing FOR her.


Thank you. you must be right, I'm not a native English speaker and I'm afraid I never got the difference between to and for in this context. :)


Could someone tell me when "solo" has an accent and when it doesn't?


xtempore explained it above - to quote: ""solo" can mean either "alone" or "lonely", but "sólo" only ever means "only"."


Since English depends heavily on word order to convey meaning, a good writer would place the word "only" very carefully to convey the correct meaning. The rule is to place the adjective or adverb as close as possible to the word that it references. However, in normal conversation, many people don't even think about the placement and listeners ascertain the intended meaning based on context.

Only I sing for my daughter. (Only I, and no one else, sings for her.)

I only sing for my daughter. (I don't read poetry or play the piano or entertain her in any other way. I only sing.)

I sing only for my daughter or I sing for my daughter only. (I don't sing for my husband or for my son or for anyone else.)

Like jasaucedo, I am curious how each of these meanings would be conveyed in Spanish.


we should be allowed to use the word usually at the begining of the sentence


"Usually" is "usualmente", The difference is subtle in both languages. "Usually" refers to how often things happen, and is quite neutral, whereas "generally" doesn't relate to how often things happen. For me, in this sentence, "generally" refers to a personal choice. I.e. I choose to only sing for my daughter.

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i don't agree. Generally and usually are generally interchangeable since they usually both mean usually.


Generally speaking, of course. It would be the usual meaning of each in the general case.


Lol to make ur claim and it be ur example


Generally I only sing for my daughter is more grammatically correct.


Would not "Suelo solo canto . . . . " work as well?


Almost. I think it should be "Suelo cantar sólo..." The second verb needs to be in the infinitive, otherwise you are saying "I" twice, something like "I usually I sing". Also, sólo must have the accent, otherwise it means "alone".


Thanks, you are correct


I don’t have a lot to say. Why? I’m speechless. Because I only sing for my daughter. But not because I sing only for my daughter. Please keep in my mind that this is general.


Normally should be accepted

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