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  5. "Tá mé feargach mar níl an ph…

" feargach mar níl an phictiúrlann oscailte."

Translation:I am angry because the cinema is not open.

June 4, 2015



Is there any particular reason why this sentence uses "Tá mé" instead of "Táim"?


I used "Táim" in place of "Tá mé" and it didn't accept it for me either.


should be "tá fearg orm".


I don't get why it's not níl oscailte an phictiúrlann on the end of that. I'm always confused


That's not right because it doesn't follow the Verb-Subject-Object word order. An phictiúrlann is the subject of the verb níl, so it has to be directly behind it.

[deactivated user]

    It's because níl is the negative of fuil (dependent form of bí) so it comes first in the phrase. Oscailte is the adjectival form of osclaíonn; Because it's an adjective, it comes after an phictiúlann. So that's how we get níl an phictiúlann oscailte :D


    Gabh mo leithscéal, ach, ni thuigim cén fáth ní úsáidtear "ar oscailt" anseo...


    A native speaker told me that the difference between Ta me and Taim is equivalent to the difference between "I am" and "I'm". Makes no sense then that "Taim feargach mar nil phicturlann oscailte" is rejected as a correct answer.

    • 1443

    Your native speaker friend wasn't technically correct about the difference between táim and tá me, as "I'm" is considered less formal than "I am", and there is no such distinction between táim and tá me.

    With regards to this exercise, as this is an Irish to English exercise, the only time you get to give an answer in Irish is when it is used for a "Type what you hear" exercise, which is meant to measure your ability to hear the actual words spoken. As she doesn't say Taim feargach mar nil phicturlann oscailte, you have not accurately heard the words spoken, so your answer was rejected.

    If you were asked to translate "I am angry because the cinema is not open", then Taim feargach mar nil an phicturlann oscailte, with the definite article, would probably be accepted (though Ta fearg orm mar nil an phicturlann oscailte would be better).


    SatharnPHL: Regarding your final parenthetical observation, is there a dialect difference in these constructions? In other words, is "Táim feargach" (or Tá mé feargach) used more often in one dialect, while "Tá fearg orm" is more common elsewhere?

    • 1443

    I honestly couldn't say. Obviously English speakers are more likely to use the adjectival form to translate "angry", but I don't know if that is more or less common in any of the dialects.


    GRMA. I was just curious.

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