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  5. "¿A quién no le gustan los sá…

"¿A quién no le gustan los sábados?"

Translation:Who does not like Saturdays?

December 27, 2012



Is 'A quién' whom , 'con quien' with whom , 'de quien' whose- three compound words used together.. so in this sentence A quién is then whom i.e to whom are Saturdays not pleasing? Literally.


I like your explanation. Now it makes sense to me.


in your example is "whom" singular or plural? It can be both in English right? If it is singular is it because of "le" and would putting "les" in this sentence make it be you (plural formal) ? or would that require "a quienes"? or am I just making things up? :D


Yes we use les for plural. Whether you would use quienes or quien outside of this context absolutely yes(IMO). I can't think of how this sentence could need to be plural. If you really asking about quienes I believe you are correct.


I was told by more than one native Spanish speaker that 1) many native speakers struggle with the direct/indirect le/lo object issue -- and often get it wrong and 2) "reversing" the process to "like" in English from "gustar" in Spanish is difficult for them, too.

So, as learners of Spanish, we shouldn't feel too bad about this. :-)


Ok I feel better now. I want to mention that a number of friends have told me they gave up at this stage. So knowing this we can relax and just keep practicing.


Maybe I should give up also. I have been doing this lesson for days now and I simply do not understand any of it. From the number of discussions I imagine that this is a particularly difficult section. I hope that one day it will click with me. I am feeling quite despondent


Hang in there. I wrote this some time ago. My experience is we have times when it seems like you just can't get it but those in fact are the times we gain. How, we become aware of the issue. If I could say one thing to others it would be don't force it, learn naturally through lots of exposure. It's been proven to work. Getting it wrong teaches us more. Take the time to do some research but don't worry about it if you forget. You are building a foundation.


Many thanks. I still feel like I will never understand it, but hope that it will come together soon. I do very much appreciate your support. I have given you 5 lingots for that because you have convinced me that it could happen to anybody.


So you mean native also self confuse with the object pronouns?!

I was a b it confuse why le is use here. but translation there is no him/she/it.


Why do you need 'le' in this sentence?


Thanks, this is enlightening.


I'm still not understanding why we need to use "le"before gustan rather than "les" because we "are liking" Saturdays which is plural....isn't "le" for a single object?


because it's not "to us", but rather "to whom", which is singular here: a quién. And, I know this is a pain, but remember that it's los sabados that are doing the "pleasing" (thus the plural verb gustan) and -- in the Spanish grammar -- there is no "liking". Then we need to say pleasing to whom -- in this case a quién (le) rather than a specific person. [I hope I haven't just made things worse.]

This sentence is difficult in so many ways: gustarse, which we translate as "like" but works in reverse to our way of thinking, the whole le/lo (etc.) direct/indirect objects issue, AND it's a generalized conceptual interrogative.

In other words, I don't think anyone should feel bad for struggling with this one. I feel as though many folks gave up on DL because of this one example alone and I think that's a shame.


"we are" is your problem. A quien = Whom = singular. Who doesn't like Saturdays.


Would 'gusta' work here to? I am trying to understand why gustan was used.


the way i see it, gustar doesn't mean 'to like' but 'to be liked by' so it becomes 'saturdays aren't liked by whom?'


It literally means, "to please." To "like something" as such, isn't really a concept in the language as far as I know. "A mi me gustan los perros," literally "Dogs please me" but in English obviously you'd say "I like dogs."


Why "A mi" ? Doesn't "me gustan los perros" alone convey the whole idea of "dogs please me"...i mean if you could break the sentence and tell what purpose does this extra "A mi" serve ?


Thanks. That makes sense then.


NO, 'gusta' doesn't work, here the subject is 'Los sabados' and the verd has to be in the same person as the subject.


gustan is plural and is used because the sentence is plural ="Saturdays"


it's because saturdays is plural. it it was saturday then "gusta" would be used.


droma, that doesn't make sense. The verb agrees with the Subject, not the object.


gustar has to match the singularity/plurality of the direct object - in this case, saturdays which is plural. for example: me gusta el gato vs. me gustan los gatos. gato and gatos are the direct objects.


why was it wrong to use "the saturdays" rather than just saturdays?


Because we don't say that in English. We never use a definite article with a day of the week.


Can someone explain why the Clitic/Indirect Object Pronoun is singular?


I agree this question is tricky? But my thinking is that in this case if you replace 'a quien' with él we would then say 'a él no le gustan los sabados ' which then means 'a quien' is clarifying the question in same the manner that 'a él' does and 'le' does not change. What do you think?


Good approach. I think the inherent ambiguity of the question "to whom?" is what threw me.

This section is tough and I am on high alert so things that I would normally let slide are now a big deal.


I am struggling also. I've seen many similar comments so you aren't alone. I am making so many mistakes but I am slowly getting it. Good luck as you proceed. We'll get there eventually.


(To who) no (to him/her/it/you) like the saturdays. Notice gustan is the plural form of the verb, it matches the plural form of the object "sábados". Please correct me if needed, thanks.


Why is le needed here? My buddy who is a native speaker translated the sentence for me but he implied it was an odd why to say this statement. He didn't understand the need for le either. Or at least that's how his text came across.


In English, "Who doesn't like Saturday?" has exactly the same meaning as "Who doesn't like Saturdays?" Both should be accepted.


I was dinged for "...like the Saturdays". I don't like the English us of "the", but it is aligned with the Spanish statement. Why marked wrong?


Who doesn't like the Saturdays . That was my answer. Why it doesn't work?


We I see "gustan" I tend to see plural and I answered who do not like Saturdays rather than who doesn't like Saturdays.


When translated into English and 'who' becomes the subject and it takes 3rd person singular 'does not, or 'doesn't'.


In English, who is considered singular, so why is the plural form of the verb used in this? Is quien considered plural in Spanish???


DUO, when you see a sentence such as this one, where there is a lot of confusion on the topic, why don't you weigh in and give us the rule, instead of leaving us to flounder as we try to hash it out amongst ourselves?!?

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