"I am in the man's house."
Translation:Táim i dteach an fhir.
The “the” is in the genitive noun phrase teach an fhir, so it doesn’t get repeated by changing i to sa. But since i eclipses its governed noun, it becomes i dteach an fhir.
so the first noun in a genitive noun phrase like this is automatically assumed to be definite without needing an 'an'?
Irish, unlike English, can only have one definite noun, and it goes between them. So, since it's teach an fhir, the an makes the entire phrase definite.
Interesting. So, "the man's son's house", for example... teach mac an fhir ?
I didn't even come close to getting this one and it wasn't even the one I had to write myself (and I have been here over 3 years!). I did know it involved the genitive...but none of the exercises in the genitive section prepared me to know how to say "dteach an fhir"
So how would one say " I am in a man's house" then I wonder ? Táim I dteach fhir ?
If I'm not mistaken it should be: Táim i dteach fir. The lenition in "dteach an fhir" is triggered by the article "an". No "an", no lenition.