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  5. "Ben görüyorum çünkü gözlükle…

"Ben görüyorum çünkü gözlüklerim var."

Translation:I see because I have glasses.

June 15, 2015

28 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/juliacooper

Why is "I am seeing because i have my glasses" not a correct translation? I thought that "-yorum" indicated a present continue tense, which would be "i am seeing". I guess that sounds a little akward in english, but am I still wrong? :(


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/sainio

"See" is a stative verb, which means that in English, it's usually used in the simple present ("I see"), and its meaning changes if you use it in the present continuous: it either means you're dating somebody, or that you're seeing something very temporary ("we're seeing an increase in the number of errors"). In this sentence, I can't think of a situation where "I'm seeing" wouldn't sound strange. (I think it's because you're not seeing anything in particular: "seeing" seems to really need a direct object.)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/gemwajji

I agree with above, but still, technically the translation 'I am seeing' should be acceptable, as the sentence does not indicate the context in which it is being said.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Marjan_G

I think 'i am seeing' should be accepted as well. In the context 'i am seeing (now), because i have glasses (which i didn't have before).


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/AmelDaiffa

Gözluklerim =my glasses


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/GundogduHasan

Exactly, that sounds like a better version in Turkish but not in proper English actually the meaning transforms to simple present tense because of the "see" verb becomes a noun when you place the -ing at the end. Seeing is a noun that's the whole point with the verb see is an irregular verb, see - saw - sawn verb 1 , 2 and 3 right ?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Joel10870

I wrote "I can see because I have my glasses". Shouldn't that be accepted?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Yomalyn

I'm not a native speaker, so I'm not offering an answer, but rather another question...

Wouldn't "I can see" translate as "görebiliyorum"?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Dasha2210

ı agree with you I can see ıs the best option because here we talk about physical ability


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/OzgunDemir1

my shouldn't be there


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/nikigantoise

I know glasses are more common nowadays, what what the heck is wrong with "spectacles?" I am an old woman , so I like older words.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Oregon501

which phrase doesn't belong? 1. disney on ice and shooting a man out of a cannon 2. ear horn and peg leg 3. spectacles


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/BarbaraLat8

"I see" is a correct translation, but it's much more natural to say "I can see", and it means the same.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/OrianaDaz

I put "I see because I wear glasses "...because the fact that I have glasses doesn't mean I can actually see -if I don't wear them -. I'm confused about this sentence. Please help =(


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/John227032

I don't want to prolong the discussion about the merits of "I see" versus "I can see" but here goes anyway. "Can see" has virtually replaced "see" in the present tense with reference to physical sight; "see" alone is now used mostly metaphorically for insight/comprehension/relationships. Hence "I can see you" but "I see what you mean" and "he's seeing Amanda". However this distinction does not apply in other tenses, hence "I saw him yesterday" and "I'll see what I can do". English speakers need to be aware that the "can" of "can see" rarely refers to capacity to see and it is usually wrong, therefore, to translate it into the foreign language.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/AboAyman3

Why not: I see because I wear glasses


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/EdvntL

That woukd require tge verb "to wear", which does not appear in the original sentence


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Shamshoomi

I am seeing because I have glasses. Why is this wrong?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/OzgunDemir1

it is not wrong, perfectly fine translation


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/elo285

"gözlükler" is always plural like in english ?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Selcen_Ozturk

actually no. It is usually singular


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/FeLunia7

Sometimes we can use that word for plural but we don't mean plural


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/AmanyTourky

can we say "I see because I have my glasses?"


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/LucyRousso

I got the correct answer because I got into the spirit of duolingo. Otherwise 'I can see because I wear glasses' would have been my response. If I had my glasses in my pocket or my handbag I wouldn't be able to see.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Shahzad007

Why isn't "I see because there are my glasses" correct????

i know you will see one can only see when wearing his glasses...but for example the person has glasses on the table so cann't the above statement i wrote be correct??? because when written separate "Gözlüklerim var." = There are my glasses/i have glasses...both are correct


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/OzgunDemir1

it is the wrong emphasis... when you say my glasses, you put the emphasis on the fact that the glasses are yours. For you to say that sentence you have to be in a situation where you used someone else's glasses but they didn't work, so you switched back to your glasses


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Hend.Hegazi

"I see because I have eyeglasses" why wrong ?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Bonjour689181

I see because I have eye-glasses, should be accepted. It is common to refer to glasses as eye-glasses. Also sun-glasses is used to distinguish between ordinary eye-glasses,

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