"See" is a stative verb, which means that in English, it's usually used in the simple present ("I see"), and its meaning changes if you use it in the present continuous: it either means you're dating somebody, or that you're seeing something very temporary ("we're seeing an increase in the number of errors"). In this sentence, I can't think of a situation where "I'm seeing" wouldn't sound strange. (I think it's because you're not seeing anything in particular: "seeing" seems to really need a direct object.)
Exactly, that sounds like a better version in Turkish but not in proper English actually the meaning transforms to simple present tense because of the "see" verb becomes a noun when you place the -ing at the end. Seeing is a noun that's the whole point with the verb see is an irregular verb, see - saw - sawn verb 1 , 2 and 3 right ?
I don't want to prolong the discussion about the merits of "I see" versus "I can see" but here goes anyway. "Can see" has virtually replaced "see" in the present tense with reference to physical sight; "see" alone is now used mostly metaphorically for insight/comprehension/relationships. Hence "I can see you" but "I see what you mean" and "he's seeing Amanda". However this distinction does not apply in other tenses, hence "I saw him yesterday" and "I'll see what I can do". English speakers need to be aware that the "can" of "can see" rarely refers to capacity to see and it is usually wrong, therefore, to translate it into the foreign language.
Why isn't "I see because there are my glasses" correct????
i know you will see one can only see when wearing his glasses...but for example the person has glasses on the table so cann't the above statement i wrote be correct??? because when written separate "Gözlüklerim var." = There are my glasses/i have glasses...both are correct