Translation:I have liked that beer since yesterday.
Many people confuse "present perfect" with a present tense. It corresponds to FR "passé composé" which may be translated as either EN Simple Present or Present Perfect. Both of these refer to completed actions. The issue in this exercise is how the use of "depuis" with a FR present tense aimer is translated into English as "have liked ... since ...." Here, "like" is a stative verb and would not be used as "have been liking", but action verbs are naturally translated that way in English, e.g.,
- J'habite ici depuis le premier juillet = I have been living here since the first of July
You should add the "I have" to the hints because to me, it just says "I like" and the sentence made sense after that, I did not know about the rule you just mentioned. Or not regard the "I like" as wrong and then put in in a hint that it should be "I have liked" because ... Be nice.
We cannot do that for a simple reason.
The translation of "j'aime" to "I have liked" is an exception; generally "j'aime" can translate only to "I like" or "I love".
The reason for this exception is the use of "depuis".
If we were to add what you suggest to the hints, every time "j'aime" is used in the course, you would see "I have liked" and in 90% of cases it would be wrong.
I meant the hint that pops up after you have pressed the submit button, above the input box.
First, many thanks to you and n6zs for all the care you take of all of us! The relation of the English present perfect to a 'dated' French simple present is clear and leads to elegant translations. But would an acceptable, if more awkward translation, be "I like this beer, since yesterday" - with a slightly ironic shrug?
J'aime cette beire depuis hier = literally translated means, "I like this beer since yesterday." However, this English sentence does not make sense. In English to have the same meaning, one would say, "I have liked this beer since yesterday." Or perhaps, "Yesterday, I started to like this beer."
This is not a blanket rule. Sometimes it's acceptable, sometimes not. "I am working tomorrow" (present continuous + future) is acceptable, "I am working yesterday" (present continuous + past) is not.
- I liked it yesterday (now I don't)
- I have liked it since yesterday (I still do)
- I like it yesterday - doesn't make sense
- I like it since yesterday - still doesn't make sense
"have liked" is present perfect, which means that it actually is a present tense, expressing an event that started in the past and that still has consequences at the time you speak.
Present perfect and passé composé are constructed the same way (auxiliary in present + verb in past participle), but they rarely match. Actually, they are equivalent only cases like:
- I have lost my keys = j'ai perdu mes clés
In cases where the sentence is complemented with "for + duration" or "since + date", the French passé composé does not always work:
- I have lived (been living) here for 2 months = je vis ici depuis 2 mois (simple present)
- I have lived (been living) here since my marriage = je vis ici depuis mon mariage (simple present)
I have read all comments and i'm clear about the new rule of "depuis+date" = "have+past, etc"... What i'm still questioning of DL is "why is it asking me to answer something with PAST if i have not reached the PAST lessons yet?" Is not fair... I answered correctly (i thought): "i like this beer since yesterday" (it surprised me to be wrong). I agree with many here that sometimes DL has things translated in a wrong grammatical way in any language! I'm practicing French with DL in English (being my native language Spanish) because it's a way for me to practice both (English and French), and my husband is practicing English with DL in Spanish...and i've seen mistakes of DL in all: Sp, En and even Fr, grammatically speaking and in writting (and also some in pronnunciation). DL helps a lot many times, but some others is confusing! Sorry for my long note (even for some of my writen mistakes), and thanks to anyone that reads it, for the attention. Bye, blessings
In this sentence, why is 'j'aime' translated as 'have liked' and not as 'liked'? 'Have liked' is learned as 'j'ai aime'! Is it the addition of 'depuis'? If the French say 'I like this beer since yesterday', translate it as such and we will learn to appreciate the difference when the word 'depuis' is used. It appears as a mistake and now I realise it is not. It is deflating to be marked wrong for lack of understanding of the use of the word 'depuis' when used with a french 'present tense, verb. Anyway I think I understand now but I had to look elsewhere for confirmation!
You probably read all the discussions before you posted, so you know what's going on. But in case you are unclear, what we have run into is a difference in how the two languages handle some continuous events.
In French you can say "Je la connais depuis cinq ans" , meaning "I met her five years ago and I still know her". You usually do not use the same structure in English ("I know her for five years"), but rather you put it into a continuous form, the present perfect: "I have known her for five years."
So, you are not getting an English past tense from a French present tense; you are expressing the same idea in the correct form in each language.
Thanks for the detailed response. It at least explains this example. It doesn't explain why when I use the same approach of giving the english expression that means the same (especially the Texas version!) it gets counted wrong! Regardless of any idiomatic meaning, to keep this fair, a literal translation should always be accepted. At least in my opinion.
Your frustration is coming through clearly. I suspect it is something we all feel as we go through the process of learning a language, before we arrive at the freedom of being able to use it.
Part of what I was trying to get at is that sometimes it is not a case of the literal, the idiomatic or the interpretive. Sometimes it is that languages actually treat things differently. For instance, in French you "have" age, while in English you "are" your age. It is not interpretive or idiomatic (and definately not literal) when you translate from one to the other using the appropriate verb; it is simply correct.
We can only keep trying. Bon courage!