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  5. "No sé por qué esos trabajos …

"No por qué esos trabajos son hechos por la noche."

Translation:I do not know why those jobs are done at night.

December 28, 2012



why "por la noche" instead of "en la noche"


"Por la noche" is a fixed phrase in Spanish that means "at night" - it does not translate directly.

"En la noche" is incorrect


Thanks I'd thought that but wasn't sure it was always the case. Cant it be translated as 'for the night',' in the night' or 'at night'?


In English "done for the night" has a very different meaning - it means finished. "I'm done for the night, goodbye, I'll see you tomorrow."


It can have the same meaning as above also though. "She does all her homework at night" means "All her homework is done at night" both are said and are grammatically correct.


en la noche is an English way of speaking, ie. 'at night' por la noche, por la manana is Spanish grammar. Makes it easier if you don't compare the two.

My favorite is : "Nos vemos manana por la manana." We'll see each other tomorrow morning (tomorrow, in the morning)


There's another word for morning - madrugada but it's used for night, early morning (like at 3, 4, 5 o'clock in the morning)


Either one is fine. "por" is typical in Spain, and probably elsewhere


Actually that's how I say it most of the times


You say "en"? or "por"?


"I do not know why those works are done at night." Spanish may use the plural "trabajos" here, but in this context, English uses the singular. "this work" should be the preferred translation. I understand the principle of testing recognition of plurals versus singulars, but the goal should also be to understand how language is used differently in the different languages.


I agree. I wonder if I can get my money back.


Yes, "those works" would not be said in English, however "those jobs" seems fine to me. I don't think DL should accept "those works" as a correct answer.


Unless they meant "those works" as in "works of art".


'obra' is the translation of work when used in the context of 'works of art'.


and obras is used for roadworks and construction as well, at least here in Mexico. And labour force or manpower is mano de obra.


I was taught that the question words like why, where, when etc. only have accents when used as a question. So in this sentence "por que" doesn't have an accent.


"porque" = because. "por qué" = why.


I think this is what's called an indirect question, so that's why an accent is there.


What's wrong with "made" instead of "done"?


What kind of sense would that sentence make?


Can i use 'se hacen' instead of 'son hechos' for the passive voice?


I would think so, because this sentence technically doesn't have an agent... So I think the imcomplete passive "se hacen" would be more appropriate. If you do that though, you would have to change the word order to "...se hacen esos trabajos..."


why not "están hechos“ ?


Look at the answer below this one - it's the passive voice (the jobs 'are done' by an unspecified actor or actors). That's how you form it in spanish, ser + past participle (hecho in this case)


I don't see that you need to translate 'esos trabajos' by an English plural.


Why say "those jobs" instead of just "that job," you mean? If you were talking about different job positions (e.g. a security guard AND a nurse) then you wouldn't refer to both of them in the singular.


Job can also refer to a piece of work eg digging up the road, emptying a cess-pit or carrying out an exhumation.


In the previous sentence we learned "esta pagada" and now "son hechos". When is estar used with the past participle and when is ser used?


"estar" is used to describe someone's/something's state or condition, while "ser" is used to describe action and it is almost always used with "por". For example, "Las pizzas son cocinadas (action) por mi mamá, pero ella está enferma. Por eso, las pizzas no están cocinadas (state/condition).



so then what would "para la noche" mean?


I think in that case it would mean "by night" as in the deadline for doing something is at night, but I could be wrong.


How about "No sé por qué esos trabajos se llevan a cabo por la noche"? Wrong?


Not a native speaker, but it looks fine to me, meaning "I don't know why those jobs are carried out at night".


Done, made. Why it's wrong "made"


The context of the sentence makes "made" a really unlikely translation.

I don't know why these JOBS are done at night. Jobs are done, not made.

I don't know why these THINGS are done/made at night - if this sentence had used a different noun, like "things" - either "done" or "made" would make sense.


What.. is.. going on with Duo in this lesson. First it makes me say "fui seguiste" over and over again and now it's talking about people being detained and mystery jobs done at night.


Do we use 'son' instead of 'estan' because the jobs are not temporarily done at night?


what's the difference between "porque" and "por qué"????


Por qué=Why, porque=because


It seems to translate more like...' I don't know why those jobs are made for the night'. Read a label that says 'Hecho en Mexico'. Made in Mexico. Ta..da...


"I don't know" why you think "I do not know" is different. They are both equal in standard English. I til you this before and you have done nothing about it.


"I don't know why those jobs are done at night," should be included as a correct solution.


I literally put in what they said the response was, word for word...


I know it doesn't make a lot of sense, but why is "i don't know because those jobs are made at night" technically incorrect?


"I don't know why those jobs are done at night" was an wrong answer?!

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