"Elas o pagam."
Translation:They pay him.
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I have a question concerning this type of sentences. I'm wondering how it is possible to what is paid in this situation. My solution is 'They pay it', whereas the answer is 'They pay him', but I see no direct evidence that points to 'him'. How can I know it should be 'They pay him', instead of 'They pay it'? Thanks in advance
Should it not be that:
Elas o pagam. -> They pay for it.
And...
Elas lhe pagam. -> They pay him?
So basically this is currently wrong?
Why is it sometimes "o" and sometime "lhe" ...
Also I think that introducing "object complement pronom" using the verb leer is quite unwise. It gives Ele lhe lê (for he reads him)
If the verb requires a preposition, use lhe for the 3rd person:
- ela ama ele (no preposition) = ela O ama
- ela entrega PARA ele o presente (preposition) = ele LHE entrega o presente.
For the other persons the pronoun remais the same.
obrigado ... eu preciso de um curso escrito com tu o que explicado. Non é facile saber as preposiçoes, por exemplo "sonhar para" significa "dream about" ou "gritar para" é "shout at" ... elas não são as mesmas que em frances.
Oui, mais si tu déjà parles le français, ça sera plus facile pour toi
- o/a = le/la
- le = lui.
In Catalan O (meaning it) is pretty much the same: "HO", and in Occitan too: "O". And both are pronounced as in Portuguese. Well in Portuguese they pronounce something between an o and a u but in Occitan and Catalan (except in some dialects, I think) it's always pronounced as a u.
I thought 'o' was a direct object pronoun? If they pay him then it's lhe pagam, right?
I can't see "você" in the grammar note for pronouns (table at top of page). I put "They pay you" here and I was marked wrong, so wrong.......