"Mi hijo siempre ha sido muy independiente."
Translation:My son has always been very independent.
"My son always has been"...or "My son has always been"...both should be correct. Why is that not so? This is acceptable in general speech and splitting the verb? Is that some rule in English that nobody follows? It's a matter of emphasis and style, I always thought.
The general rule for English seems to be that adverbs (except "not") generally come right before the verb if there's only one verb in the sentence, otherwise it comes after:
- He never saw it coming.
- He has never seen it coming.
- He could never have seen it coming.
It's an awkward mix of the Germanic way of handling adverbs (after the conjugated verb) and the Romance way (before the conjugated verb). And the rule doesn't account for the aforementioned "not", which tends to create its own auxiliary (He did not see it coming), and not for forms of "to be" (He was always independent/He always was independent). English is a mess and your sentence sounds fine as well, so why not?