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  5. "She is a different woman."

"She is a different woman."

Translation:Is bean dhifriúil í.

July 1, 2015



Why is difriúil lenited here? Bean only lenites after a nominative singular definite article, right? Do attributive adjectives for singular feminine nouns always lenite, even without the definite article being present?


The Caighdeán Oifigiúil (Athbhreithnithe, 2012) says:

san uimhir uatha:

(i) i gcás ainmfhocal firinscneach, ní shéimhítear an aidiacht ach amháin sa tuiseal gairmeach agus sa tuiseal ginideach*;

(ii) i gcás ainmfhocal baininscneach, séimhítear an aidiacht sna tuisil go léir ach amháin sa tuiseal ginideach.

in the singular:

(i) in the case of masculine nouns, the adjective is only lenited in the vocative case and in the genitive case* [separate note on the dative];

(ii) in the case of feminine nouns, the adjective is lenited in all cases except in the genitive case.

(My translation: open to correction)


The lenition of the adjective occurs because of the gender of the noun (attributive adjectives agree with the gender of the noun), and has nothing to do with whether the noun itself is actually lenited, so you can have a sentence like Tá leaba dhúbailte sa seomra - "there is a double bed in the room", where dúbailte is lenited, even though leaba isn't, (and wouldn't be even if the sentence was tá an leaba dhúbailte sa seomra), because you can't lenite l, but leaba is feminine, and dhúbailte reflects that.


GRMMA. Tá an míniúchán an-mhaith ach tá sé fós riachtanach é seo a fhoghlaim trí athrá.


I love that the further along one gets in these lessons, the more grammatocal the discussions on here. I sincerely appreciate them!!!!


Why is this considered a characteristic instead of a state of being? She is not intrinsically a different woman; it is only based on the conditions at the time that she is not the same woman.


She is intrinsically a different woman from every other woman anywhere.


I see arrikis1' point. If the comparison was made between her now and her before (e.g. because sth in her life made her change to a "different" woman), would then the sentence change to "Tá sí bean dhifriúil"?


Here is a fundamental issue that Duolingo must necessarily suffer from: ill-defined, quick-fire translation questions. Scilling helpfully provides a context for the translation that wasn't available when the question was posed. Anyhow, could "tá" be used instead of "is" under a different undefined context?


No, because this issue of a characteristic versus a state of being is a red herring.

You use the copula here because you are linking the pronoun "she"/"í" with the noun "woman"/"bean". "Different"/"difriúil" is just an adjective that qualifies "woman"/"bean", and has no bearing on the copular structure that is needed for the basic "she is a woman" statement.

There really isn't anything ill-defined or quick-fire in this statement, only a misunderstanding by some users about what the copula is used for.


Nice and simple. Many thanks for the benefit of your experience. I'll add this to my list of warnings to the unwary: Misleading "help" from some Duolingo contributors; Asking questions about Irish from native speakers sometimes gets contradictory answers; Duolingo has plenty of errors and bugs; My local Kerry tutor despises grammar rules; Not all test questions are unambiguous; And of course, info on the WWW is .....


Does that mean that when you are linking a pronoun to a noun, it's always the copula? I am still struggling with this....


The copula is used when you are using a noun/pronoun to identify or classify a noun/pronoun. In this exercise, you are classifying the pronoun "she" as a noun "woman".


Why do dntls not come into play here?


Because dntls doesn't apply in the case of attributive adjectives.


Just had an eye-opener for sharing: lenition is not a kind of declension! I conclude this from the facts that, firstly, predicative adjectives are not declined; secondly, here is a predicative adjective and thirdly, it's lenited.


difriúil is an attributive adjective in this exercise.

You're clearly jumping to all sorts of conclusions based on a misunderstanding of standard grammatical terms. Worse, you're suggesting rules or guidelines based on these fundamental misunderstandings, which will only confuse other learners.


Nualeargais.ie: Even though lenition has become a tool of grammar, it wasn't one originally - unlike declensions. Lenition was originally about sound (comme la liaison).


Wait a minute! Just before this example, it was the same thing without the "i!" So why did I have to put it in??

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