"She is a different woman."
Translation:Is bean dhifriúil í.
Why is difriúil lenited here? Bean only lenites after a nominative singular definite article, right? Do attributive adjectives for singular feminine nouns always lenite, even without the definite article being present?
The Caighdeán Oifigiúil (Athbhreithnithe, 2012) says:
san uimhir uatha:
(i) i gcás ainmfhocal firinscneach, ní shéimhítear an aidiacht ach amháin sa tuiseal gairmeach agus sa tuiseal ginideach*;
(ii) i gcás ainmfhocal baininscneach, séimhítear an aidiacht sna tuisil go léir ach amháin sa tuiseal ginideach.
in the singular:
(i) in the case of masculine nouns, the adjective is only lenited in the vocative case and in the genitive case* [separate note on the dative];
(ii) in the case of feminine nouns, the adjective is lenited in all cases except in the genitive case.
(My translation: open to correction)
The lenition of the adjective occurs because of the gender of the noun (adjectives agree with the gender of the noun), and has nothing to do with whether the noun itself is actually lenited, so you can have a sentence like "Tá leaba dhúbailte sa seomra" - "there is a double bed in the room", where "dúbailte" is lenited, even though "leaba" isn't, (and wouldn't be even if the sentence was "tá an leaba dhúbailte sa seomra"), because you can't lenite "l", but "leaba" is feminine, and "dhúbailte" reflects that.
I love that the further along one gets in these lessons, the more grammatocal the discussions on here. I sincerely appreciate them!!!!
Why is this considered a characteristic instead of a state of being? She is not intrinsically a different woman; it is only based on the conditions at the time that she is not the same woman.
She is intrinsically a different woman from every other woman anywhere.
Here is a fundamental issue that Duolingo must necessarily suffer from: ill-defined, quick-fire translation questions. Scilling helpfully provides a context for the translation that wasn't available when the question was posed. Anyhow, could "tá" be used instead of "is" under a different undefined context?
No, because this issue of a characteristic versus a state of being is a red herring.
You use the copula here because you are linking the pronoun "she"/"í" with the noun "woman"/"bean". "Different"/"difriúil" is just an adjective that qualifies "woman"/"bean", and has no bearing on the copular structure that is needed for the basic "she is a woman" statement.
There really isn't anything ill-defined or quick-fire in this statement, only a misunderstanding by some users about what the copula is used for.
Nice and simple. Many thanks for the benefit of your experience. I'll add this to my list of warnings to the unwary: Misleading "help" from some Duolingo contributors; Asking questions about Irish from native speakers sometimes gets contradictory answers; Duolingo has plenty of errors and bugs; My local Kerry tutor despises grammar rules; Not all test questions are unambiguous; And of course, info on the WWW is .....