"Habías llegado después de mí."

Translation:You had arrived after me.

October 12, 2013

68 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/JGibbins

Last sentence duo said llegado was come, not arrived. Next sentence it says it's arrived, not come. That's two hearts gone.

I'm starting to hate owls.

July 9, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/gjmontll

I too had venido in the prior sentence and DL accepted "arrived" as the translation. Likewise, in this sentence, I also translated llegado as "arrived" and it was accepted. In English, there is a nuance of difference between "arrived" and "came" yet they are often interchangable. Is that also the case in Spanish, or what is the real differnce?

January 2, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/PavelVlad23

I think it's same as in English. "Venir" means that "to come" but not necessarily "to arrive" and "llegar" means "to arrive" that implies that they had to come for the arrival to occur... I hope that I answer your question .

July 15, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/MAMIPILY

I feel you bro.

D=< >:(

August 2, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/evadpvr

The grammatically correct answer would be after I (arrived), although I admit that most people do not use correct grammar in this case. I think that DL should accept both I and me.

October 12, 2013

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ThanKwee

After can be a subordinating conjunction, as in "You had arrived after I did" or "You had arrived after I arrived".

However, after can also be a preposition as in "You had arrived after me". Me is the object of the preposition in this sentence.

Therefore, "You had arrived after I" is incorrect.

October 12, 2013

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/evadpvr

My teacher from many years ago would disagree with you, but after checking several dictionaries, grammar text books, and on-line forums about English grammar, I agree that my earlier comment was wrong. After some thought, I suspect that my teacher, and for many years I, had confused the rules for the subordinate conjunction than with the rules for after, before, etc. Clearly, "he is shorter than I" is grammatically preferred to the colloquial "he is shorter than me", but the same rule (assumed verb making the pronoun the subject of the clause) does not apply to words like after.

October 12, 2013

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/maysnak

It is my understanding that the word "than" may be used is a conjunction or as a preposition. In the sentence, "He is shorter than X", the word "than" is being used as a preposition much "after", "through", so the object of the proposition is the pronoun "me". If the sentence is, "He is shorter than X am", then the word "than" is functioning as a conjunction which links two independent clauses, so the word to use is the subject pronoun "I". Does that make sense?

Summary He is shorter than me. He is shorter than I am.

Unless you want to make the argument that * He is shorter than I. has an implied and omitted "am" at the end of the sentence so the subject form of the pronoun is used

There has been a trend for many educated people to use "I" as an object in prepositional phrases. We see it so often that it can feel right. I think it starts when we are children who say "Johnny and me went to the store" and we constantly get corrected "No, Johnny and I". so we learn it's better to say "I" and tend to over use "I"

In Spanish, the subject form of the pronoun is "yo" and the object form is "mí". In the Duolingo sentence, it said, "depués de mí" so it follows the example of a prepositional phrase in Spanish.

March 2, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/stevehaker

I put "You had arrived after I did" and that was not accepted either. My inclination, when writing formally, would be to write "You came after me" to mean you were chasing me, but "You came after I" to mean you arrived after I did. It sounds pretty archaic at this point though.

May 5, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/KickyKat

My thoughts exactly! A lingot for you!

May 6, 2016

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/LaVille249771

One would never say "You had arrived after me arrived"

February 22, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/jonmcnay2

After is a subordinate conjunction in this case because "arrived" is implied if not specifically expressed.

March 31, 2018

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/lynettemcw

That is wrong. After me is the only correct answer. You are probably thinking of unequal comparisons with than. He is taller than I (am) Than is a conjunction which joins two phrases but usage often allows the second verb to be assumed for comparisons. But after is a preposition. All prepositions are always followed by their object. I, he, she, who, etc. can never be objects of a preposition. Of course who is the one on the list that is most common error here, as whom is unfortunately dying out.

June 25, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Torgrim1

why is the "de" here?

November 4, 2014

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/rlatshaw

Después is an adverb or adjective meaning after or afterwards. Depués de is a preposition meaning after.

March 13, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/maryereeve

You had arrived after I did is a perfectly idiomatic translation of this same sentence and should be accepted by DL. No need to go so painfully literal on this kind of expression.

November 29, 2014

[deactivated user]

    I agree!

    May 1, 2015

    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/thanhnguyen1991

    What? I think its not a right sentence, it should be "you had arrived before i did". Past perfect expresses an action that happened before another action in the past. Anyway, im not a native speaker, im Vietnamese and i studied english grammar a lot when i was at high school. Hope im right this time

    January 24, 2015

    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/alfalfa2

    For you to be correct, the sentence would need "antes" rather than "despues". If you arrived at 7pm and I arrived at 8pm, I arrived after (despues de) you. If I arrived at 6pm, I arrived before (antes de) you.

    August 31, 2015

    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Casiquire

    Despues means after, not before. Is that where the issue lies?

    March 6, 2015

    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/thanhnguyen1991

    yep, thats what i think

    March 6, 2015

    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/EdK4kY

    How about if the action that took place after you arrived has already been discussed, or is about to be? I arrived, then you arrived, the something else happened.

    e.g. "You had arrived after me, but were still in time to see the last rays of sunshine slip behind the sierra."

    August 28, 2015

    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Jana80703

    Thanh Nguyen, you are right that "Past perfect expresses an action that happened before another action in the past." However, it doesn't matter which event is mentioned first in the sentence. So it doesn't matter that the event that happened later is mentioned first. So actually this sentence is grammatically correct as a past perfect tense sentence. So when you change the word "after" to the word "before," you change the facts of this sentence rather than correct it grammatically. See: www.edufind.com/english-grammar/past-perfect-tense/

    April 4, 2016

    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Sophyd

    This man's pronunciation is so unclear. Even listening to it with the answer in front of me the words don't sound right

    June 12, 2016

    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/KxngDeo.

    What happens if I don't put "de"? Would it have a different meaning or just be grammatically wrong?

    August 24, 2016

    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Talca

    wrong

    August 27, 2016

    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/rkcell

    Why wrong "You had arrived next to me"?

    January 25, 2015

    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Casiquire

    Despues means after, not next to.

    March 6, 2015

    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/mloverfelt

    Why isn't it, "Has llegado despues de mi"

    January 31, 2015

    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/rlatshaw

    Your sentence translates to "You have arrived after me."

    March 13, 2015

    [deactivated user]

      In the conjugated section of the lesson , 3rd person singular, present tense is ha , hay. =he/she/you. In the past tense of the same word is, hubo=he/she/it. There is no word for the sentence translation for the word habias. The closest to this spelling is the habéis and that form is not used because of this being a formal translation of this word. Where am I misunderstanding ?? HELP !!

      May 1, 2015

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Barmbru

      Isn't "you arrived after me" the same as "you had arrived after me"?

      August 6, 2015

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/rlatshaw

      Not really.

      Llegaste después de mí. You arrived after me. past tense

      Has llegado después de mí. You have arrived after me. present perfect tense

      Habías llegado después de mí. You had arrived after me. past perfect tense

      August 7, 2015

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/mawill14

      What is the difference in meaning between "has" and "habías"?

      December 17, 2015

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/pavelmeshchanov

      I am more interested in why it should be necessarily DE but not QIE - means THAN indeed. Lo pueden explicar?

      February 23, 2016

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/garmo52

      why isn't you arrived after me acceptable? the double past tense " had arrived" seems redundant

      April 10, 2016

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Shirlgirl007

      Is come not suitable to translate llegado?

      April 23, 2016

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/rlatshaw

      Perhaps, but not in this case. "To come after me" has a sexual meaning in English.

      April 23, 2016

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/PepiEspo0

      You had come after me. Why not?

      August 24, 2016

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/JulieYoung9

      My answer was correct

      November 12, 2016

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/shinpe

      Sentence is grammatically incorrect. Past perfect is used for an action that occurred before another action in the past, not after it.

      December 6, 2016

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/skepticalways

      Shinpe and Thanh Nhuyen, the past perfect is correct, and your description is also correct. The thing that happened in the past, before something else, was "You had arrived," and the NEXT thing was that the second person arrived - "... after me (substitute ...after I did in your mind, meaning "after I arrived." That is the other action. I think that's what you two were missing.

      August 9, 2017

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/lynettemcw

      Actually we don't know what happened after this past perfect phrase. Duo never gives us the context which is the reason for the past perfect, but the tense itself tells us that something else happened after this which was also in the past. Taking some liberties it might go like this. Habías llegado después de mi. Pero terminaste tu cena rápidamente y lograste escapar aquella función aburrida. Necesitaba quedarme allá por horas. You had arrived after me. But you finished your dinner quickly and managed to escape that boring function. I had to stay there for hours.

      Sometimes providing context yourself helps you understand.

      August 9, 2017

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/RobInco1

      you had come after me. What the heck is up with DL this is even in their drop down translation as well as Spanish dictionary.

      December 16, 2016

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/davidrosa.tt

      No cutting the line buddy .i dont care if its just two items

      February 13, 2017

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/davidrosa.tt

      Still can i cut the line ....i'm parked in a tow away zone.

      March 1, 2017

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Chien187311

      You had come after me is the same as you had arrived after me depending on circumstances. English also uses "come after me" to mean - followed and found. So if that is why the distinction is made, okay, but we often use you had come to mean you had arrived.

      June 6, 2017

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Sara07041962

      You'd is not a proper English contraction. Their answer is not correct.

      July 7, 2017

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/lynettemcw

      There is nothing wrong with you'd. It can be used as a contraction of you had or you would which is what it would mean here.

      http://www.dictionary.com/browse/you-d

      July 7, 2017

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/JohnnieBrowne

      ?.. but not "..later than me", huh?

      July 21, 2017

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/lynettemcw

      After and later mean similar things when looking at a time continuum. But if the issue is ordinal (As in I was here first and should be served next) después or after is the better choice. In Duo's contextless exercises you cannot assume that it is all the same if there is a more precise translation for what you changed. Más tarde de is later than. Después de is after. The only way to teach Spanish vocabulary is to match it with the most precise word or words in English. If there is the same difference between two words in Spanish as the two words in English, even if the meanings are similar, you translate with the more precise match. Of course literary translations are different. But with literature the translation is also an art form where the translators try to convey all the emotions and impressions conveyed by the original author. That is why translators get famous for great translation. But we are still working on basic or intermediate fluency.

      July 21, 2017

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Wakati

      Why wont it accept "You arrived after me."? Adding had in doesn't work in English, but the meaning is the same.

      November 3, 2017

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/lynettemcw

      The had absolutely does work in English and the sentence wouldn't mean the same thing without it. The problem most users have with the past perfect and future perfect sentences on Duo, is that, due to their lack of context, the sentence don't assume their usual function of placing events in their proper order in either the past or the future. I do agree that this sentence is a little funky in the past perfect, but Duo's convention for tense for tense translation should be used as much as possible And you have arrived, you arrived, you had arrived, you would have arrived and you will have arrived all require different translations. This sentence implies that, although you HAD arrived after me, that still happened BEFORE the central action in the past you are discussing

      November 3, 2017

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/daniel.lec

      After reading the below, I'm starting to remember my 7th grade English class nightmares... Thank you all for your input... I can learn this stuff now @67.5yrs.

      December 12, 2017

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/LaVille249771

      "You had arrived after I" is the correct English

      February 22, 2018

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/jonmcnay2

      Actually, it should be: You had arrived after I. ME is grammatically incorrect.

      March 31, 2018

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/lynettemcw

      Personally I applaud that concept. But when I studied Linguistics in college I was somewhat disappointed to find out that linguists eschew prescriptive grammar, focusing instead on describing the grammar of the language as it is actually spoken. By that criterion, that rule has almost completely been assigned to the dinasaurs. I doubt you will hear it spoken correctly once in 1000 similar sentences, although you would probably have somewhat better luck in written English. In most cases, knowing the old rule in English will help a learner with their Spanish, but here Spanish uses the object form because it is the object of the preposition de.

      March 31, 2018

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/houstonalle

      It could have been the formal you form as well as yo form.

      April 29, 2018

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/lynettemcw

      No habías is the Tú imperfect indicative form of the verb Haber, which is the auxiliary verb for the perfect tenses. So Habías llegado can only be tú habías llegado. Había llegado could be Él, ella or usted. Theoretically it could be yo as well, but this sentence has enough context to know that it isn't. One cannot arrive after one's self. Context generally makes the pronoun clear, just not as often in the one sentence that Duo gives.

      April 29, 2018

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Robert116627

      Why "de comer"?

      September 29, 2018

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/lynettemcw

      Your comment appears to be misplaced as there is no de comer here. Taking a guess that you are questioning what forms come after the preposition, I will address that. In Spanish prepositions always have objects. That's mostly true in English, but English also has many phrasal verbs with prepositions that don't have objects. The object of the preposition must be a noun or pronoun. The infinitive of any verb is the form used as a noun (like the English gerund), so that explains de comer. The prepositional objects that are pronouns are again slightly different. For most prepositions they are mi, ti, and then the same forms as the subject pronouns for the others. And with con mi and ti have the unique forms conmigo and contigo.

      September 29, 2018

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/derek821493

      Can anyone.please tell me the difference between you had arrived after me, and you arrived after me. In English, aren't these the same? DL marked it wrong.

      October 4, 2018

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/lynettemcw

      No, they aren't the same. When you use the simple past, you are talking about any completed event in the past. The past perfect, however, places that event in the past as happening before some other event in the past. So you had arrived after me is only said to place that event in the past in relation to another event, either expressed or implied. So you would say You had arrived after me and didn't see the accident (or some other event). Actually that is a somewhat unusual past perfect due to the word after in it, since normally the past perfect event happens before the other event in the past as in I had just started work when the accident happened.

      October 4, 2018

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/derek821493

      Hi Lynette, thanks for the reply. I understand the example 'I had just started work when the accident happened', but in the case of 'you had arrived after me' I can't think of a single example in which you couldn't substitute with 'you arrived after me' whilst meaning the same. For example 'did you see the accident I saw?' 'No, you arrived after me'. It sounds the same as 'No, you had arrived after me' which can also be said. Am I not seeing something?

      October 4, 2018

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/lynettemcw

      In a question and answer scenario, you have the implied sequence of events. With an implied sequence you are correct that either the past or past perfect can be used. But without the implied or a specified sequence of events, the past perfect would not be grammatically correct, although not that uncommonly used. But you are correct, there are some circumstances where either would be acceptable in English.

      But the real issue is the translation. There is a clear relationship between how Spanish uses their various tenses and English tenses. And one of the major things that Duo is teaching is verb conjugations in various tenses. So they expect you to recognize habías llegado as past perfect and reflect that knowledge in your translation. Demonstrating your knowledge of the subject matter according to the framework presented is the function of all assignments and tests in a course. So when translating, the goal is to be as literal as possible within the confines of correct and fluid English. The obvious exceptions are things like greetings and idioms which are translated more socially than linguistically. But just meaning the same thing is not necessarily sufficient to demonstrate mastery, especially since the exercises are graded by a computer and not a person who can better judge what your answer shows about your knowledge.

      October 4, 2018

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/crzhu

      I think the correct sentence have to be:habias llegado antes que yo.

      October 9, 2018

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/lynettemcw

      Después and antes are opposites so I am not sure why you would say that antes was correct when después was called for. Also antes also takes de, not que, although there is also the expression antes de que which is before when used with a subject and verb. Esa chica necesita un poco de dirección antes de que sea demasiado tarde. That girl needs a little direction before it is too late.

      October 9, 2018

      https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Emma554843

      I agree.. Some words do not even match the spanish to english. And now i pay lingots just to test out, can't seem to get around not paying

      February 18, 2019
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