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"Habías llegado después de mí."

Translation:You had arrived after me.

October 12, 2013



Last sentence duo said llegado was come, not arrived. Next sentence it says it's arrived, not come. That's two hearts gone.

I'm starting to hate owls.


I too had venido in the prior sentence and DL accepted "arrived" as the translation. Likewise, in this sentence, I also translated llegado as "arrived" and it was accepted. In English, there is a nuance of difference between "arrived" and "came" yet they are often interchangable. Is that also the case in Spanish, or what is the real differnce?


I think it's same as in English. "Venir" means that "to come" but not necessarily "to arrive" and "llegar" means "to arrive" that implies that they had to come for the arrival to occur... I hope that I answer your question .


I feel you bro.

D=< >:(


True story. Can you please change that?


The grammatically correct answer would be after I (arrived), although I admit that most people do not use correct grammar in this case. I think that DL should accept both I and me.


After can be a subordinating conjunction, as in "You had arrived after I did" or "You had arrived after I arrived".

However, after can also be a preposition as in "You had arrived after me". Me is the object of the preposition in this sentence.

Therefore, "You had arrived after I" is incorrect.


My teacher from many years ago would disagree with you, but after checking several dictionaries, grammar text books, and on-line forums about English grammar, I agree that my earlier comment was wrong. After some thought, I suspect that my teacher, and for many years I, had confused the rules for the subordinate conjunction than with the rules for after, before, etc. Clearly, "he is shorter than I" is grammatically preferred to the colloquial "he is shorter than me", but the same rule (assumed verb making the pronoun the subject of the clause) does not apply to words like after.


It is my understanding that the word "than" may be used is a conjunction or as a preposition. In the sentence, "He is shorter than X", the word "than" is being used as a preposition much "after", "through", so the object of the proposition is the pronoun "me". If the sentence is, "He is shorter than X am", then the word "than" is functioning as a conjunction which links two independent clauses, so the word to use is the subject pronoun "I". Does that make sense?

Summary He is shorter than me. He is shorter than I am.

Unless you want to make the argument that * He is shorter than I. has an implied and omitted "am" at the end of the sentence so the subject form of the pronoun is used

There has been a trend for many educated people to use "I" as an object in prepositional phrases. We see it so often that it can feel right. I think it starts when we are children who say "Johnny and me went to the store" and we constantly get corrected "No, Johnny and I". so we learn it's better to say "I" and tend to over use "I"

In Spanish, the subject form of the pronoun is "yo" and the object form is "mí". In the Duolingo sentence, it said, "depués de mí" so it follows the example of a prepositional phrase in Spanish.


I put "You had arrived after I did" and that was not accepted either. My inclination, when writing formally, would be to write "You came after me" to mean you were chasing me, but "You came after I" to mean you arrived after I did. It sounds pretty archaic at this point though.


My thoughts exactly! A lingot for you!


One would never say "You had arrived after me arrived"


After is a subordinate conjunction in this case because "arrived" is implied if not specifically expressed.


That is wrong. After me is the only correct answer. You are probably thinking of unequal comparisons with than. He is taller than I (am) Than is a conjunction which joins two phrases but usage often allows the second verb to be assumed for comparisons. But after is a preposition. All prepositions are always followed by their object. I, he, she, who, etc. can never be objects of a preposition. Of course who is the one on the list that is most common error here, as whom is unfortunately dying out.


why is the "de" here?


Después is an adverb or adjective meaning after or afterwards. Depués de is a preposition meaning after.


You had arrived after I did is a perfectly idiomatic translation of this same sentence and should be accepted by DL. No need to go so painfully literal on this kind of expression.

[deactivated user]

    I agree!


    What? I think its not a right sentence, it should be "you had arrived before i did". Past perfect expresses an action that happened before another action in the past. Anyway, im not a native speaker, im Vietnamese and i studied english grammar a lot when i was at high school. Hope im right this time


    For you to be correct, the sentence would need "antes" rather than "despues". If you arrived at 7pm and I arrived at 8pm, I arrived after (despues de) you. If I arrived at 6pm, I arrived before (antes de) you.


    Despues means after, not before. Is that where the issue lies?


    yep, thats what i think


    How about if the action that took place after you arrived has already been discussed, or is about to be? I arrived, then you arrived, the something else happened.

    e.g. "You had arrived after me, but were still in time to see the last rays of sunshine slip behind the sierra."


    Thanh Nguyen, you are right that "Past perfect expresses an action that happened before another action in the past." However, it doesn't matter which event is mentioned first in the sentence. So it doesn't matter that the event that happened later is mentioned first. So actually this sentence is grammatically correct as a past perfect tense sentence. So when you change the word "after" to the word "before," you change the facts of this sentence rather than correct it grammatically. See: www.edufind.com/english-grammar/past-perfect-tense/


    This man's pronunciation is so unclear. Even listening to it with the answer in front of me the words don't sound right


    Why isn't it, "Has llegado despues de mi"


    Your sentence translates to "You have arrived after me."

    [deactivated user]

      In the conjugated section of the lesson , 3rd person singular, present tense is ha , hay. =he/she/you. In the past tense of the same word is, hubo=he/she/it. There is no word for the sentence translation for the word habias. The closest to this spelling is the habéis and that form is not used because of this being a formal translation of this word. Where am I misunderstanding ?? HELP !!


      Isn't "you arrived after me" the same as "you had arrived after me"?


      Not really.

      Llegaste después de mí. You arrived after me. past tense

      Has llegado después de mí. You have arrived after me. present perfect tense

      Habías llegado después de mí. You had arrived after me. past perfect tense


      What is the difference in meaning between "has" and "habías"?


      I am more interested in why it should be necessarily DE but not QIE - means THAN indeed. Lo pueden explicar?


      why isn't you arrived after me acceptable? the double past tense " had arrived" seems redundant


      Is come not suitable to translate llegado?


      Perhaps, but not in this case. "To come after me" has a sexual meaning in English.


      What happens if I don't put "de"? Would it have a different meaning or just be grammatically wrong?


      You had come after me. Why not?


      My answer was correct


      Sentence is grammatically incorrect. Past perfect is used for an action that occurred before another action in the past, not after it.


      Shinpe and Thanh Nhuyen, the past perfect is correct, and your description is also correct. The thing that happened in the past, before something else, was "You had arrived," and the NEXT thing was that the second person arrived - "... after me (substitute ...after I did in your mind, meaning "after I arrived." That is the other action. I think that's what you two were missing.


      Actually we don't know what happened after this past perfect phrase. Duo never gives us the context which is the reason for the past perfect, but the tense itself tells us that something else happened after this which was also in the past. Taking some liberties it might go like this. Habías llegado después de mi. Pero terminaste tu cena rápidamente y lograste escapar aquella función aburrida. Necesitaba quedarme allá por horas. You had arrived after me. But you finished your dinner quickly and managed to escape that boring function. I had to stay there for hours.

      Sometimes providing context yourself helps you understand.


      you had come after me. What the heck is up with DL this is even in their drop down translation as well as Spanish dictionary.


      No cutting the line buddy .i dont care if its just two items


      Still can i cut the line ....i'm parked in a tow away zone.


      You had come after me is the same as you had arrived after me depending on circumstances. English also uses "come after me" to mean - followed and found. So if that is why the distinction is made, okay, but we often use you had come to mean you had arrived.


      You'd is not a proper English contraction. Their answer is not correct.


      There is nothing wrong with you'd. It can be used as a contraction of you had or you would which is what it would mean here.



      ?.. but not "..later than me", huh?


      After and later mean similar things when looking at a time continuum. But if the issue is ordinal (As in I was here first and should be served next) después or after is the better choice. In Duo's contextless exercises you cannot assume that it is all the same if there is a more precise translation for what you changed. Más tarde de is later than. Después de is after. The only way to teach Spanish vocabulary is to match it with the most precise word or words in English. If there is the same difference between two words in Spanish as the two words in English, even if the meanings are similar, you translate with the more precise match. Of course literary translations are different. But with literature the translation is also an art form where the translators try to convey all the emotions and impressions conveyed by the original author. That is why translators get famous for great translation. But we are still working on basic or intermediate fluency.


      Why wont it accept "You arrived after me."? Adding had in doesn't work in English, but the meaning is the same.


      The had absolutely does work in English and the sentence wouldn't mean the same thing without it. The problem most users have with the past perfect and future perfect sentences on Duo, is that, due to their lack of context, the sentence don't assume their usual function of placing events in their proper order in either the past or the future. I do agree that this sentence is a little funky in the past perfect, but Duo's convention for tense for tense translation should be used as much as possible And you have arrived, you arrived, you had arrived, you would have arrived and you will have arrived all require different translations. This sentence implies that, although you HAD arrived after me, that still happened BEFORE the central action in the past you are discussing


      After reading the below, I'm starting to remember my 7th grade English class nightmares... Thank you all for your input... I can learn this stuff now @67.5yrs.


      "You had arrived after I" is the correct English


      Actually, it should be: You had arrived after I. ME is grammatically incorrect.


      Personally I applaud that concept. But when I studied Linguistics in college I was somewhat disappointed to find out that linguists eschew prescriptive grammar, focusing instead on describing the grammar of the language as it is actually spoken. By that criterion, that rule has almost completely been assigned to the dinasaurs. I doubt you will hear it spoken correctly once in 1000 similar sentences, although you would probably have somewhat better luck in written English. In most cases, knowing the old rule in English will help a learner with their Spanish, but here Spanish uses the object form because it is the object of the preposition de.


      It could have been the formal you form as well as yo form.


      No habías is the Tú imperfect indicative form of the verb Haber, which is the auxiliary verb for the perfect tenses. So Habías llegado can only be tú habías llegado. Había llegado could be Él, ella or usted. Theoretically it could be yo as well, but this sentence has enough context to know that it isn't. One cannot arrive after one's self. Context generally makes the pronoun clear, just not as often in the one sentence that Duo gives.


      Your comment appears to be misplaced as there is no de comer here. Taking a guess that you are questioning what forms come after the preposition, I will address that. In Spanish prepositions always have objects. That's mostly true in English, but English also has many phrasal verbs with prepositions that don't have objects. The object of the preposition must be a noun or pronoun. The infinitive of any verb is the form used as a noun (like the English gerund), so that explains de comer. The prepositional objects that are pronouns are again slightly different. For most prepositions they are mi, ti, and then the same forms as the subject pronouns for the others. And with con mi and ti have the unique forms conmigo and contigo.


      Can anyone.please tell me the difference between you had arrived after me, and you arrived after me. In English, aren't these the same? DL marked it wrong.


      No, they aren't the same. When you use the simple past, you are talking about any completed event in the past. The past perfect, however, places that event in the past as happening before some other event in the past. So you had arrived after me is only said to place that event in the past in relation to another event, either expressed or implied. So you would say You had arrived after me and didn't see the accident (or some other event). Actually that is a somewhat unusual past perfect due to the word after in it, since normally the past perfect event happens before the other event in the past as in I had just started work when the accident happened.


      Hi Lynette, thanks for the reply. I understand the example 'I had just started work when the accident happened', but in the case of 'you had arrived after me' I can't think of a single example in which you couldn't substitute with 'you arrived after me' whilst meaning the same. For example 'did you see the accident I saw?' 'No, you arrived after me'. It sounds the same as 'No, you had arrived after me' which can also be said. Am I not seeing something?


      In a question and answer scenario, you have the implied sequence of events. With an implied sequence you are correct that either the past or past perfect can be used. But without the implied or a specified sequence of events, the past perfect would not be grammatically correct, although not that uncommonly used. But you are correct, there are some circumstances where either would be acceptable in English.

      But the real issue is the translation. There is a clear relationship between how Spanish uses their various tenses and English tenses. And one of the major things that Duo is teaching is verb conjugations in various tenses. So they expect you to recognize habías llegado as past perfect and reflect that knowledge in your translation. Demonstrating your knowledge of the subject matter according to the framework presented is the function of all assignments and tests in a course. So when translating, the goal is to be as literal as possible within the confines of correct and fluid English. The obvious exceptions are things like greetings and idioms which are translated more socially than linguistically. But just meaning the same thing is not necessarily sufficient to demonstrate mastery, especially since the exercises are graded by a computer and not a person who can better judge what your answer shows about your knowledge.


      I think the correct sentence have to be:habias llegado antes que yo.


      Después and antes are opposites so I am not sure why you would say that antes was correct when después was called for. Also antes also takes de, not que, although there is also the expression antes de que which is before when used with a subject and verb. Esa chica necesita un poco de dirección antes de que sea demasiado tarde. That girl needs a little direction before it is too late.


      I agree.. Some words do not even match the spanish to english. And now i pay lingots just to test out, can't seem to get around not paying


      Check your engish usage, it is after I.


      I agree. Better English grammar would be: You had arrived after I did.


      That's not better English grammar. It's a different way to say the same thing. "You had arrived after me" is perfectly correct grammar.


      Why wrong "You had arrived next to me"?


      Despues means after, not next to.


      This should not be past perfect but simple past. You arrived after me. However, "you had arrived before i did" would sort of make sense, no?


      No. Remember that Duo never has context, so it can be confusing. But whenever you have these perfect tenses like past and future which establish a time-line in the past or future, you have to provide your own context of the central point in that time. For example. Habías llegado después de mi, pero te sirvieron primero. You had arrived after me, but you were served first. The past perfect puts the arriving prior to being served which is in the simple past. That is the function of the past perfect.


      It absolutely should be 'I'. Duolingo should at the very least accept both 'me' and 'I'.


      I'm interested why mi is used instead if yo or me. It's the first time I have seen that. Just one of those difference ones to memorise perhaps??


      Same here. I thought mi was "my" and me was "me". Is this wrong


      I got: you'd arrive after me...who says that?

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