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  5. "Tá arán roimh an gcaife."

" arán roimh an gcaife."

Translation:Bread is in front of the coffee.

July 10, 2015



Why is "There is bread before the coffee." incorrect here?


Because the course creators didn’t anticipate that as a correct answer. Be sure to use the Report a Problem button to bring it to their attention.


Is right now


There would have to 'an' before bread and also 'roimh' means in front of aswell. Alot of words a Gaeilge have 2 meanings


I misheard as "Tá an rón..." It'd still be a perfectly sane sentence as far as Duolingo is concerned XD


Tá an rón roimh an gcaife. Gach maidin.


Very difficult to understand this.


I said 'there is bread in front of the cafe.' Could that be right?


That would be gcaifé, with a fada


Do you prononce the "g" that is in front on "caife"? Because when you listen it's like it is prononced, but when it's without the "g", is it prononce the same?


The "g" is pronounced in lieu of the "c" making it "gaife" in pronunciation.


Yes. It's called a sébhú (idk if I spelled that right) i think its tge same with gate. Gate as Gaeilge is geata. But if you want to say on the gate you say ar an ngeata. Pronounced nyata


The eclipsing letter (g in this case) is called an urú.

The h that follows a consonant is called a séimhiú.


So does context determine whether 'roimh' means 'before' or 'in front of', aren't they opposites?


How are they opposites? If something is before me, it is obviously in front of me, not behind me.


I think they picked up "before" as "behind" since it transmits the idea of sequence, like "after" being "in front of".


Why is it gcaife and not bcaife


The "c" of "caife" is formed at the back of the throat (that "k" sound is a "glottal" or "gutteral" stop or "plosive"); "gcaife" is simply the voiced version of "caife:" both the "g" sound and "k" ("c") sound are "glottal" (or maybe it's "gutteral") stops (or "plosives"). Following the same pattern, "bportán" is the voiced version of "portán," but both the "b" sound and "p" sound are bilabial stops (or "plosives"). "Mbean" is a nasalised version of "bean," but both the "m" and "b" are voiced bilabials. The "v" sound of the "bh" in "bhfear" is a voiced labiodental fricative; the "f" sound of "fear" is an unvoiced labiodental fricative. In each case, the "mouth parts" remain in basically the same position to eclipse the consonant; if "caife" became "bcaife" (rather than "gcaife"), the eclisped version would form at the other end of the mouth, viz., between the lips rather than at the back of the throat.


b is only used to eclipse words that start with p. g is used to eclipse words that start with "c".



Can someone explain to me why "an gcaife" due to its position seems like it is the subject and "arán" is the object? In the sentence "bread is in front of the coffee", "Bread is" is the predicate phrase of the sentence, subject + verb, not "coffee"...


??? The verb is and its subject is arán.


I don't understand, though. In the sentence "Tá uisce ag an gcailín", an gcailín is the subject, isn't it? Why, in "Tá arán roimh an gcaife", suddenly "arán" is the subject, if it takes the same position as "uisce" in the first example?


Irish, and other languages such as Russian and Korean, doesn't have a verb for "have". Irish uses the construction Tá X ag Y to convey the same meaning as "Y has X", but that doesn't make Y the subject of the Irish sentence, it just means that Irish and English don't use the same grammar to express that concept of possession, and X is the subject in Irish (subject of the verb ) whereas Y is the subject of "have" in English.

In this exercise, isn't being used to express some other concept, it just means "is" and there is agreement between Irish and English about the subject and object or predicate of the sentence.


All right, thanks. Still not clear to me (though of course logically there should be agreement!), but probably if I'll read up some more on that, it will eventually start making sense. So far I'm mostly doing these exercises mechanically, just constructing parts in the order I'm shown, but they don't make sense, and so I'm prone to such mistakes where I can't guess where the subject and the object go in the sentence.


"Logically" it would be impossible to translate "have" at all if there is no Irish verb that means "have".

There is no "logical" requirement for such agreement, any more than there is any "logical" requirement that "I own the cat" and "the cat is mine" should both have the same subject.


everything duo tought me so far is that this sentence should mean " the coffe before bread"...??


I'm pretty sure that everything Duolingo taught you included the fact that is a verb, and arán is the subject of the verb so tá arán ... means "bread is ..."


i though "Os comhair" was "in front of"

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