"¿Qué has bebido en ese restaurante?"
Translation:What have you drunk at that restaurant?
67 Comments
Past participles often change things. If you have a verb with a 'u' or an 'en,' it will probably have a form of "to have" in front of it.: I drink * I drank * I have drunk I swim * I swam * I have swum I break * I broke * I have broken
I drink, I drank, I got drunk. Proper bar conjugation. It is the same for Ceasar's famous quote: Veni,vidi, vici...I came, I saw, I got drunk.
drank is the preterite form -> i drank = "yo bebí" the past year, and this setence is Perfect past... I have drunk-> "yo he bebido" 30 seconds ago. say hello to dean and sammy winchester pal xd
Except that where I'm from, it's common usage. I guess you could say that we all speak the language wrong here... or maybe it's just a regional variation?
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You can be correct in one context (in your case regionally), and wrong in others (learning the grammar of a language for example). The main thing is to know when one or the other is appropriate, and when it makes sense to argue that you was righter. :)
I think he meant "was MORE righter." That's the only way it would be grammatically correct. Unless, of course, he added a little smiley face.
You would not be incorrect to say "have drank." Both are listed as correct in some English dictionaries, and both are widely used. http://grammarist.com/usage/drink-drank-drunk/
Both "have drank" and "have drunk should be correct options.
Me too. That's the common usage in part of England. I've never been much of a fan of prescriptive grammar. By it's very nature grammar can only ever describe the usage of language.
Many of those regional usages are common class & education level markers. Right or wrong, you may be thought of as ignorant & have a harder time being taken seriously outside of your regional group if your language includes non-standard regional usages such as "have drank" instead of "have drunk," "have went" instead of "have gone," "have ate" instead of "have eaten," and participle for preterite substitutions such as "seen" instead of "saw," "run" instead of "ran," "swum" instead of swam," etc.
Here's the drink, drank, drunk breakdown: "I drink water"=simple present (i drink water now) "I drank water"=simple past (I drank water at a certain time) "I have drunk water"=perfect present (I have drunk water before now) It only gets confusing because normally one core verb and an "ed" would be used, as in: "I call her" (I call her now) "I called her" (I called her at a certain time) "I have called her" (I have called her before now) To better understand the drink, drank, drunk usage consider the verb "eat": "I eat bread" (I eat bread now) "I ate bread" (I ate bread at a certain time) "I have eaten bread" (I have eaten bread before now) Like drink, drank, drunk three different verb constructions are used. Hope this clarifies, and don't worry about your English as you will learn plenty about it when learning Spanish, lol.
What is wrong with "What did you drink in that restaurant?" How is not communicating exactly the same thing?
It's the difference between the simple past tense and the present perfect (I think?).
"What have you drunk?" is asking about anything you've drunk at any time up until now.
"What did you drink?" is asking about what you drank on one specific occasion.
Since "haber" is used as an auxiliary verb to form present perfect, you translate it as "have drunk". If you wanted to write it in simple past (did drink, drank), you would omit haber and conjugate beber accordingly (bebías). So it may sound strange or uncommon, but DL is trying to teach you how to use haber and perfect tenses.
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In real world communication this is much more likely to be what you hear from an educated speaker.
Despite the nattering-on in this discussion about what's technically correct, "What have you drunk" is miserably awkward phrasing. "What have you had to drink..." conveys the same question and sounds far more natural.
Sorry in advance for more technical nattering, but although the two sentences you have offered are synonymous, and I agree the latter is much more likely to be heard, "What have you had to drink ..." is not what RahulBirSi suggested, which was instead "What did you drink ..." This has a different meaning, as has been well nattered about already. A big problem here is that the DL sentence itself is strange, because 99% of the time when we ask someone this sort of question we want to know what they had on a specific occasion, not over their lifespan (or that of the restaurant). Hence, we would most often ask "What did you drink ..." not "What have you drunk/had to drink".
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"What did you drink in that restaurant [when you went there]?"
"What did you have to drink in that restaurant [when you went there]?
"What have you had to drink in that restaurant [when you went there]?
The shades of meaning among these sentences is negligible anywhere outside a Linguistics Department lounge. Pity the Spanish-speaking English learner reading this thread.
Amigos de España: ¡No tenga miedo! English is actually easier than this discussion is making it seem.
Pues, mas o menos.
One final natter. Your first construct is what people would normally ask and refers to a specific occasion. Your second is a new variation that could spark its own debate, so for efficiency's sake I'll skip it. Your third, even with the additional clause, retains the meaning of no specific occasion, or, if the "when" you mention was a specific occasion, becomes incorrect. I agree with you, however, that many English speakers won't care and Spanish speakers learning English shouldn't be overly concerned with all this nattering. The point I was trying to make in the previous comment was that had DL chosen the more common query "What did you drink..." then there would have been less confusion, but I guess that question would not belong in the present-perfect section.
For me "in that restaurant" and "at that restaurant" are quite different. I would only use "in" when referring to something "inside" the building itself, as opposed to the establishment/business. For most purposes "at" is the appropriate preposition.
Sometimes either can be used and the difference is subtle...
"There are twenty tables in that restaurant" - means that inside the building there are 20 tables.
"There are twenty tables at that restaurant" - means that the establishment has 20 tables available to customers.
On other occasions, the difference is more distinct..
"I got drunk at that restaurant" - Is the common way to say this.
"I got drunk in that restaurant" - Means I was inside that restaurant when I got drunk. I cannot think of a situation where this is the way I would express it.
The important thing to note here is that Spanish does not make the same distinction. You use "en" in both cases.
Don't be tempted to translate "at" as "a" (Spanish). For places, use "en". "a" can be used as a translation of "at" when referring to direction (tirarle una piedra a Juan), time (a las seis), speed (a 60km por hora), or price (a tres dolares por kilo).
I would never say or likely hear "have you drunk" but instead much more likely to hear "What did you have to drink". Drunk in my experience is usually used as being in a state of intoxication so I think we tend to stay away from "drunk". Not saying drunk is wrong, it's just not common.
I think there is a distinction between the two. "What did you drink at that restaurant?" is asking about a specific time whereas "What have you drunk at that restaurant?" suggests that you've been there a few times and I'm asking which of the drinks you've tried and I'm likely to be interested in what you might recommend.
I think you have it right. The noun "drunk" is more commonly used than the verb form. Well done!
I know my English is not perfect however, what is the difference between "drunk" and I've "been drinking”? To me they are the same, to Duolingo "been drinking" is wrong
They could be used similarly I guess, but you've changed the tense from present perfect to present perfect progressive. From memory this question is in the "present perfect" lesson, so I doubt DL will accept any other tense, however similar.
As added info, Spanish uses the present perfect progressive too. Your sentence would be: ¿Qué has estado bebiendo en ese restaurante?
I understand that drunk is correct but at the same time if hardly anyone uses it anymore in regular conversation and instead uses drank then what is the point?
Maybe "hardly anyone" depends on who you hang out with. I would be really shocked to hear anyone I know use "drank" incorrectly.
I accept that the English language will, and perhaps even should, inevitably change, but I do abhor poor English that results in the language being LESS understandable and MORE inconsistent.
To me "drank" falls into that category, because if you start accepting its incorrect use then you also make it inconsistent with that entire family of verb forms - sink/sank/sunk, ring/rang/rung, sing/sang/sung, and other closely related forms like run/ran/run.
Hola Amigo xtempore: Amen! It hurts my ears to hear "I have drank" !!!!! It is just not right!
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I tend to agree, but I can't be shocked anymore. I work at a school where I hear educated people commonly say things like "have went" and seen without have or has...
It would be normal to say " What have you had to drink in that restaurant? For more clarity maybe "what do they have to drink ..." or "What do you like to drink when at that restaurant?" Then you avoid the controversy over what form of the verb "drink" to use It's true that we in America usually, almost only, use the word "drunk" to describe a state of excessive intoxication from alcohol.
What about "I have.." vs "I had.." I have gone to the store to buy some bread, and I had gone to the store to buy some bread. Difference?
"I have" is easy enough, it's present perfect and means you have done something before at an unspecified time. "I had" is a little trickier as some may argue it should only be used as past perfect and not, as in your example, simple past. I hope I'm explaining this right, but for past perfect usage you would be saying you had done something before something else. "I had gone to the store before going to the movies". For simple past usage "I had gone to the store" means simply you went to the store (at a certain time). Although "had" is very commonly used with another verb in this way for simple past construction I'm not sure strict grammarians would be happy. But then, they rarely are, so, in this context, assuming simple past usage, and trying to simplify it: "Have"=something you have done before now; "Had"=something you did at a certain time.
Responding to Riich3lle: They are not the same. If you were leaving someone a note, for example, you would write, "I have gone to buy bread," definitely not "I had gone to buy bread."
To jellonz: I don't think "I had gone to the store" can ever properly express a simple past event. If someone said that to me, and stopped speaking, after the pause I would say, "And then?", because implicitly the going to the store happened before some other past event -- which is why the past perfect does not work in the note.
Yep, that is what I was trying to convey Nohaypen, the key word of course being "properly".
Glad we agree, jellonz, and I should have said I don't think it's commonly used, either. By the way, it's "pan" -- I have a pen.
Context is all-as a hopefully fluent English speaker I'd say 'what did you drink?' & 'what have you drunk?' Have pretty much identical meanings, although you might more readily use the latter to imply that the second party is getting drunk.
Every time I am drawn back to this discussion I am concerned that second-language speakers are being misled: "What have you drunk?" carries absolutely no implication that the person addressed is getting drunk. That would never even occur to someone who uses standard English. You might as well say that "What have you eaten?" implies that the person addressed is being eaten.
I am not a native English speaker but this translation seems weird to me, is it correct?
It's fine, but it is not something you would hear too often. You might often hear "What did you drink" (asking for information about a single event), but it isn't present perfect, which is why DL have chosen "What have you drunk" here. This construction asks "What have you drunk [the time/s you have been] at that restaurant." That is, there could have been multiple visits. A better present perfect example would probably have been "What have you eaten at that restaurant" (something you would hear more often).
For some reason, this was one of the only things I could never get right as a kid, and it drove my mom crazy. I think I said, "I have dranken", and I remember many lively discussions with her about it. She was pretty laid back en general, but this was just one of those things.
I'm not sure about other platforms, but on the PC you can click on the words in the DL sentence at the top of the discussion page and they're linked to their own page giving a number of example sentences with them in it. With verbs scroll down and you'll find the conjugation table.
Alternatively you could use SpanishDict's Conjugation Search: http://www.spanishdict.com/conjugation
Thank you for your quick answer! I am on platform with my mac and earlier I could find the conjugations for the verbs by clicking on them. This has changed. I just found the button "Spanish Topic" top left on this page, it took me to different kinds of information. Your link seems very good. Thank you, a lingot to you!
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But the answer given was : "What have you'd drunk in that restaurant." This is definitely not present perfect, because the action is already past. " What have you been drinking...'" is present perfect because the action is continuous. This is at least the way I understand it. Some clarification would be gratefully received. Thanks.
"What have you drunk in that restaurant" is present perfect, because the action has occurred at an indefinite time in the past.
"What have you been drinking in that restaurant" is present perfect continuous because the action is continuous.
