"¿Qué has bebido en ese restaurante?"

You would say have drank instead of have drunk?

Past participles often change things. If you have a verb with a 'u' or an 'en,' it will probably have a form of "to have" in front of it.: I drink * I drank * I have drunk I swim * I swam * I have swum I break * I broke * I have broken

drank is the preterite form -> i drank = "yo bebí" the past year, and this setence is Perfect past... I have drunk-> "yo he bebido" 30 seconds ago. say hello to dean and sammy winchester pal xd

You would be wrong.

And you would be grammatically incorrect.

Me too. That's the common usage in part of England. I've never been much of a fan of prescriptive grammar. By it's very nature grammar can only ever describe the usage of language.

You would not be incorrect to say "have drank." Both are listed as correct in some English dictionaries, and both are widely used. http://grammarist.com/usage/drink-drank-drunk/

Both "have drank" and "have drunk should be correct options.

Or "what did you drink in that restaurant"?

Exactly. "Drunk" is grammatically correct but sounds wrong; "drank" is grammatically incorrect and sounds even worse.

Here's the drink, drank, drunk breakdown: "I drink water"=simple present (i drink water now) "I drank water"=simple past (I drank water at a certain time) "I have drunk water"=perfect present (I have drunk water before now) It only gets confusing because normally one core verb and an "ed" would be used, as in: "I call her" (I call her now) "I called her" (I called her at a certain time) "I have called her" (I have called her before now) To better understand the drink, drank, drunk usage consider the verb "eat": "I eat bread" (I eat bread now) "I ate bread" (I ate bread at a certain time) "I have eaten bread" (I have eaten bread before now) Like drink, drank, drunk three different verb constructions are used. Hope this clarifies, and don't worry about your English as you will learn plenty about it when learning Spanish, lol.

It's the difference between the simple past tense and the present perfect (I think?).

"What have you drunk?" is asking about anything you've drunk at any time up until now.

"What did you drink?" is asking about what you drank on one specific occasion.

In real world communication this is much more likely to be what you hear from an educated speaker.

Despite the nattering-on in this discussion about what's technically correct, "What have you drunk" is miserably awkward phrasing. "What have you had to drink..." conveys the same question and sounds far more natural.

Since "haber" is used as an auxiliary verb to form present perfect, you translate it as "have drunk". If you wanted to write it in simple past (did drink, drank), you would omit haber and conjugate beber accordingly (bebías). So it may sound strange or uncommon, but DL is trying to teach you how to use haber and perfect tenses.

For me "in that restaurant" and "at that restaurant" are quite different. I would only use "in" when referring to something "inside" the building itself, as opposed to the establishment/business. For most purposes "at" is the appropriate preposition.

Sometimes either can be used and the difference is subtle...

"There are twenty tables in that restaurant" - means that inside the building there are 20 tables.

"There are twenty tables at that restaurant" - means that the establishment has 20 tables available to customers.

On other occasions, the difference is more distinct..

"I got drunk at that restaurant" - Is the common way to say this.

"I got drunk in that restaurant" - Means I was inside that restaurant when I got drunk. I cannot think of a situation where this is the way I would express it.

The important thing to note here is that Spanish does not make the same distinction. You use "en" in both cases.

Don't be tempted to translate "at" as "a" (Spanish). For places, use "en". "a" can be used as a translation of "at" when referring to direction (tirarle una piedra a Juan), time (a las seis), speed (a 60km por hora), or price (a tres dolares por kilo).

'In' is more concrete than 'at', I think....

I think there is a distinction between the two. "What did you drink at that restaurant?" is asking about a specific time whereas "What have you drunk at that restaurant?" suggests that you've been there a few times and I'm asking which of the drinks you've tried and I'm likely to be interested in what you might recommend.

I think you have it right. The noun "drunk" is more commonly used than the verb form. Well done!

Maybe "hardly anyone" depends on who you hang out with. I would be really shocked to hear anyone I know use "drank" incorrectly.

I accept that the English language will, and perhaps even should, inevitably change, but I do abhor poor English that results in the language being LESS understandable and MORE inconsistent.

To me "drank" falls into that category, because if you start accepting its incorrect use then you also make it inconsistent with that entire family of verb forms - sink/sank/sunk, ring/rang/rung, sing/sang/sung, and other closely related forms like run/ran/run.

Yeah, right. My comment was hidden for pointing that out.

I don't think that is English you are speaking if 'drunk' is not used as a past participle of 'drink'. I know this because of the endless comment thread attached to any entry that includes the word 'drank', which real English speakers claim they have never heard of, and 'drunk' is all they have for a past tense.

I'm not sure about other platforms, but on the PC you can click on the words in the DL sentence at the top of the discussion page and they're linked to their own page giving a number of example sentences with them in it. With verbs scroll down and you'll find the conjugation table.

Alternatively you could use SpanishDict's Conjugation Search: http://www.spanishdict.com/conjugation

There are many people who make many mistakes, but it doesn't make any of them right. It would be especially frustrating for people whose first language isn't even English (and who tend to be better at English grammar than many English speakers) to have incorrect English lit up as a correct translation.

"I have" is easy enough, it's present perfect and means you have done something before at an unspecified time. "I had" is a little trickier as some may argue it should only be used as past perfect and not, as in your example, simple past. I hope I'm explaining this right, but for past perfect usage you would be saying you had done something before something else. "I had gone to the store before going to the movies". For simple past usage "I had gone to the store" means simply you went to the store (at a certain time). Although "had" is very commonly used with another verb in this way for simple past construction I'm not sure strict grammarians would be happy. But then, they rarely are, so, in this context, assuming simple past usage, and trying to simplify it: "Have"=something you have done before now; "Had"=something you did at a certain time.

Every time I am drawn back to this discussion I am concerned that second-language speakers are being misled: "What have you drunk?" carries absolutely no implication that the person addressed is getting drunk. That would never even occur to someone who uses standard English. You might as well say that "What have you eaten?" implies that the person addressed is being eaten.

Or unless they care about using the past perfect tense of drink correctly.

It's fine, but it is not something you would hear too often. You might often hear "What did you drink" (asking for information about a single event), but it isn't present perfect, which is why DL have chosen "What have you drunk" here. This construction asks "What have you drunk [the time/s you have been] at that restaurant." That is, there could have been multiple visits. A better present perfect example would probably have been "What have you eaten at that restaurant" (something you would hear more often).

'...who has DRUNK too much'. As explained elsewhere in this thread, 'drunk' is the past participle of the verb 'to drink' and is used with the verb 'to have': ' 'I have drunk.' You cannot say, 'I/he/she etc has drank'. 'Drank' is the simple past: 'I drank' etc.

Drunk is used constantly in English because it is the correct past participle following 'have'. You cannot say, 'What have you drank.' You use 'drank' by itself, without the verb 'to have' in the simple past: 'I/you/he/she/ etc drank.

It is one hundred per cent wrong and only used by people who don't speak their own language correctly. It is neither unnatural, nor regional, just plain wrong.

Here's a conjugation of the verb "to drink" from a fairly reliable source. Please go over it carefully and draw an unbiased conclusion:

http://esl.about.com/od/grammarstructures/a/v_drink.htm

Sorry, but "have drunk" is the correct form.

It's a common mistake. Here's an example showing correct usage...

"I drank a bottle of beer last night, and I have drunk several since".

If that seems odd to you, try comparing it with the more familiar verb "to run"...

"I ran the marathon in June last year, and I have run two more since".

Saying "I have drank" is like saying "I have ate" is like saying "I have went" and on and on. Yes, we hear people talk like that, but it's flat-out grammatically incorrect, and it makes a lot of us wince.

Drink, drank, have drunk. The english "have + verb" is the equivalent of this Spanish subject ("haber + verb")

Hola Amigo patrick: NO! NO! NO! Please read all the discussion on this page. "I have drank" is very bad English.