"¿Qué has bebido en ese restaurante?"
Translation:What have you drunk at that restaurant?
I think he meant "was MORE righter." That's the only way it would be grammatically correct. Unless, of course, he added a little smiley face.
Here's the drink, drank, drunk breakdown: "I drink water"=simple present (i drink water now) "I drank water"=simple past (I drank water at a certain time) "I have drunk water"=perfect present (I have drunk water before now) It only gets confusing because normally one core verb and an "ed" would be used, as in: "I call her" (I call her now) "I called her" (I called her at a certain time) "I have called her" (I have called her before now) To better understand the drink, drank, drunk usage consider the verb "eat": "I eat bread" (I eat bread now) "I ate bread" (I ate bread at a certain time) "I have eaten bread" (I have eaten bread before now) Like drink, drank, drunk three different verb constructions are used. Hope this clarifies, and don't worry about your English as you will learn plenty about it when learning Spanish, lol.
In real world communication this is much more likely to be what you hear from an educated speaker.
Despite the nattering-on in this discussion about what's technically correct, "What have you drunk" is miserably awkward phrasing. "What have you had to drink..." conveys the same question and sounds far more natural.
Since "haber" is used as an auxiliary verb to form present perfect, you translate it as "have drunk". If you wanted to write it in simple past (did drink, drank), you would omit haber and conjugate beber accordingly (bebías). So it may sound strange or uncommon, but DL is trying to teach you how to use haber and perfect tenses.
For me "in that restaurant" and "at that restaurant" are quite different. I would only use "in" when referring to something "inside" the building itself, as opposed to the establishment/business. For most purposes "at" is the appropriate preposition.
Sometimes either can be used and the difference is subtle...
"There are twenty tables in that restaurant" - means that inside the building there are 20 tables.
"There are twenty tables at that restaurant" - means that the establishment has 20 tables available to customers.
On other occasions, the difference is more distinct..
"I got drunk at that restaurant" - Is the common way to say this.
"I got drunk in that restaurant" - Means I was inside that restaurant when I got drunk. I cannot think of a situation where this is the way I would express it.
The important thing to note here is that Spanish does not make the same distinction. You use "en" in both cases.
Don't be tempted to translate "at" as "a" (Spanish). For places, use "en". "a" can be used as a translation of "at" when referring to direction (tirarle una piedra a Juan), time (a las seis), speed (a 60km por hora), or price (a tres dolares por kilo).
I would never say or likely hear "have you drunk" but instead much more likely to hear "What did you have to drink". Drunk in my experience is usually used as being in a state of intoxication so I think we tend to stay away from "drunk". Not saying drunk is wrong, it's just not common.
I think there is a distinction between the two. "What did you drink at that restaurant?" is asking about a specific time whereas "What have you drunk at that restaurant?" suggests that you've been there a few times and I'm asking which of the drinks you've tried and I'm likely to be interested in what you might recommend.
Maybe "hardly anyone" depends on who you hang out with. I would be really shocked to hear anyone I know use "drank" incorrectly.
I accept that the English language will, and perhaps even should, inevitably change, but I do abhor poor English that results in the language being LESS understandable and MORE inconsistent.
To me "drank" falls into that category, because if you start accepting its incorrect use then you also make it inconsistent with that entire family of verb forms - sink/sank/sunk, ring/rang/rung, sing/sang/sung, and other closely related forms like run/ran/run.
I don't think that is English you are speaking if 'drunk' is not used as a past participle of 'drink'. I know this because of the endless comment thread attached to any entry that includes the word 'drank', which real English speakers claim they have never heard of, and 'drunk' is all they have for a past tense.
I'm not sure about other platforms, but on the PC you can click on the words in the DL sentence at the top of the discussion page and they're linked to their own page giving a number of example sentences with them in it. With verbs scroll down and you'll find the conjugation table.
Alternatively you could use SpanishDict's Conjugation Search: http://www.spanishdict.com/conjugation
Thank you for your quick answer! I am on platform with my mac and earlier I could find the conjugations for the verbs by clicking on them. This has changed. I just found the button "Spanish Topic" top left on this page, it took me to different kinds of information. Your link seems very good. Thank you, a lingot to you!
It would be normal to say " What have you had to drink in that restaurant? For more clarity maybe "what do they have to drink ..." or "What do you like to drink when at that restaurant?" Then you avoid the controversy over what form of the verb "drink" to use It's true that we in America usually, almost only, use the word "drunk" to describe a state of excessive intoxication from alcohol.
There are many people who make many mistakes, but it doesn't make any of them right. It would be especially frustrating for people whose first language isn't even English (and who tend to be better at English grammar than many English speakers) to have incorrect English lit up as a correct translation.
"I have" is easy enough, it's present perfect and means you have done something before at an unspecified time. "I had" is a little trickier as some may argue it should only be used as past perfect and not, as in your example, simple past. I hope I'm explaining this right, but for past perfect usage you would be saying you had done something before something else. "I had gone to the store before going to the movies". For simple past usage "I had gone to the store" means simply you went to the store (at a certain time). Although "had" is very commonly used with another verb in this way for simple past construction I'm not sure strict grammarians would be happy. But then, they rarely are, so, in this context, assuming simple past usage, and trying to simplify it: "Have"=something you have done before now; "Had"=something you did at a certain time.
Responding to Riich3lle: They are not the same. If you were leaving someone a note, for example, you would write, "I have gone to buy bread," definitely not "I had gone to buy bread."
To jellonz: I don't think "I had gone to the store" can ever properly express a simple past event. If someone said that to me, and stopped speaking, after the pause I would say, "And then?", because implicitly the going to the store happened before some other past event -- which is why the past perfect does not work in the note.
Every time I am drawn back to this discussion I am concerned that second-language speakers are being misled: "What have you drunk?" carries absolutely no implication that the person addressed is getting drunk. That would never even occur to someone who uses standard English. You might as well say that "What have you eaten?" implies that the person addressed is being eaten.
It's fine, but it is not something you would hear too often. You might often hear "What did you drink" (asking for information about a single event), but it isn't present perfect, which is why DL have chosen "What have you drunk" here. This construction asks "What have you drunk [the time/s you have been] at that restaurant." That is, there could have been multiple visits. A better present perfect example would probably have been "What have you eaten at that restaurant" (something you would hear more often).