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"Yo no bebo tanta cerveza."

Translation:I do not drink much beer.

0
5 years ago

163 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/kalenj

"I don't drink that much beer" is a valid translation to english even though it's not a transliteration.

146
Reply15 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/LadyAzalea
LadyAzalea
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You don't need to add "that" though. It's unnecessary. Also if you do, you change rhe meaning slightly and put too much emphasis on the amount of beer. When you say "that much" it becomes a comparison, whether you are comparing the amount of beer you drink with the amount of beer someone else drinks or you are comparing the amount of beer you drink with what people generally consider a lot. You DO change the meaning of the sentence and it is therefore NOT a translation.

6
Reply1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/starsprung

I disagree. In colloquial English (at least in British English) it's very common to use "not that much" to mean "not very much" or "not so much" without making any real comparison.

5
Reply4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

What do you mean by transliteration? I though the word was translation.

3
Reply2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/pinkcommodity

Transliterate is to word-for-word "translate" each word into the new language, preserving the exact, original, sentence structure.

Translate is to take the phrase/sentiment as a whole and "translate" into a sentence in the new language that sounds right to native speakers, as well as to preserve the emotion of the original phrase in the original language.

I know I broke the definition rule and used the word I was defining in my definition, but hopefully that helps!

90
Reply12 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/J.C.Fink
J.C.Fink
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Transliterate is to change "Aθηνη" to "Athene" (Greek letters to Roman/Latin letters) or "прявда" to "pravda" (Cyrillic letters to Roman/Latin alphabet). Translate is to change "прявда" to 'truth".

11
Reply1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

Thanks for the definition, and I, too, think that sometimes a transliteration is not preferable to a translation.

Re-reading this thread a year later, I feel the need to add that "literal" can also be described as "denotative," and that "idiomatic" or "colloquial" can also be described as "connotative." The meanings of "idiomatic" and "colloquial" shade into each other, but what is key is that these adjectives pertain to how the sentence (and by extension, the paragraphs) hangs together as a whole based on the constraints imposed by every language's syntactical rules and accepted word usage. Connotative meaning, in a nutshell, is why so many sentences need to be translated with words added or subtracted. The inescapable fact is that speakers of all languages are constantly popularizing word usages and syntactical constructions that "sound good" in that language, to the point that these idioms become accepted or even preferred. This selection process–that is, the "survival of the fittest phrase"–is mysterious, and no one knows why certain phrases and word preferences become idiomatic and colloquial. What's important is that when large groups of native speakers consistently choose one translation over another, then that is the preferred translation.

One other point: There is disagreement over the differences between the words "colloquial" and "idiomatic." To some people, there is no difference. For what it's worth, my teachers said that "idiomatic" usage doesn't follow the grammatical rules of the language but is still accepted as correct by native speakers. Colloquial usage follows the rules of the language, but those rules are always not mirrored in the rules of other languages.

6
Reply2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/EdwardDov

Sorry to butt in, but what you guys are talking about is the difference between literal translations and idiomatic translations. NOT "transliteration"

An idiomatic translation is like how we translate "por favor" as "please" but it literally translates as "por": "by", "at", "for", "to" and "favor": "behalf", "help", "favor", "kindness"

25
Reply12 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Carol508431

What?

0
Reply1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AllenSpehr

I am with Carol's what comment this is supposed to be basic Spanish for the unlearned not a platform for much further levels of Spanish!

-1
8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/EdwardDov

that is not correct

2
Reply12 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/abhijeetk90

This is awesome explanation

-1
Reply11 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Munozgl222

Well said

-1
Reply10 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/EdwardDov

"Transliterate" is to write a letter or word from one language using the closest corresponding letters of a different alphabet or language.

For example, writing a mandarin word with the letters of the alphabet that most closely sound it out.

32
Reply42 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Telisa7
Telisa7
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Thank you for clarifying this

2
Reply1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

The definition of "translate" includes the word "words," as well as the word "letters." See my post below. I wasn't talking about how letters are used, I was writing about how words are used to illuminate thoughts.

-2
Reply1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/EdwardDov

Yes, but you were confusing the terms "translate" and "transliterate" They do not mean the same thing

One is about reading one alphabet with the tools of another, and one is about comprehension of language.

Transliteration is NOT translating one letter into another language's letter. An English "A" can be transliterated into a Hebrew "Aleph" OR an "Ayin",. since they can make the exact same sounds

4
Reply11 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/J.C.Fink
J.C.Fink
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"Translating one letter into another language's letter" is EXACTLY what transliteration is. Sometimes there is more than one possible transliteration depending on the phonemes in each language. "Aθηνη", for example is sometimes transliterated into the alphabet English uses as "Athene" and sometimes as "Athena". And this is why we have both "sulphur" and "sulfur" in english. The Greek letter "Φ" can be transliterated into English as either "ph" or "f". Some of the discussion on this matter on this page is simply mistaken concerning what "transliteration" means. It would be useful if one of our language experts who monitors the discussions could remove the false (although presumably well-meant) material lest it misled people trying to learn here. It is not helpful if the discussion here has people solemnly affirming that "Spanish is spoken primarily by elephant herders who live above the Arctic Circle."

1
11 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/barnettjo

I'm not sure what he meant, but a transliteration is when a language does not have a translation for a word that another language has, and a new word is created in the first language to represent the other language's word. (Clear as mud, huh.) I know there are other examples, but the only one I know is the Greek word /baptizo/. (I probably misspelled it.) English didn't have a word for it, so, each Greek letter in that word was used to create our word /baptize/ meaning submerge or plung. It is really quite interesting.

-3
Reply2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

At dictionary.com, transliterate is defined as "to change (letters, words, etc.) into corresponding characters of another alphabet or language." IMO, this means that "transliterate" is a word-for-word, denotative translation, instead of a connotative translation that slightly changes a sentence syntax and/or omits words redundant in one language but not in the other. For instance, «No bebo cerveza nunca» means "I never drink beer." The reason why is because Spanish allows and sometimes mandates a double negative, one to modify the subject and the other to modify the verb. I'm not sure why, but I believe emphasis is one reason Spanish uses a double negative.

English, on the other hand, does not allow a double negative because the sentence's meaning is affected by each negation. The transliteration of «No bebo cerveza nunca» is literally/denotatively "I do not drink beer never." The connotative meaning of "I do not drink beer never" is "I do drink beer." The rule in English is this: If the number of negatives in a sentence is an even number, then the negative words cancel each other out to create a positive connotative meaning: I drink beer. Another example: "I do not ever not breathe!" means "I breathe!" However, if the number of "no's" is a singular or odd number, then the negative connotation remains. For example, "I cannot breathe!"

My final example is a compound sentence with four negative words: "I did not speak, I did not run, but never did I not fight." The two simple sentences "I did not speak" and "I did not fight" each contain one negative reference. The simple sentence "Never did I not fight" contains two negative references that add up to the positive connotative meaning "I did fight." This adds up to two negatives from the first two simple sentences and two negatives from the third simple sentence, so what this means is that, syntactically, the "count" of negatives in a complicated sentence starts anew in each clause.

P.S. Rereading this months later and reading all of the additional comments, I realize that I was not taking into account that transliteration is also a letter-by-letter substitution. Rather, I was talking about how the idiomatic/syntactic/grammatical uses of the word "no" are different in Spanish and English. Please read my other comments in this thread and those of Edward Dov, because I now realize that idiomatic and colloquial meanings, as opposed to literal meanings, were what I was discussing. I've left this posting b/c I think my explanation is still valid with respect to the different ways that Spanish and English address double negatives.

7
Reply2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Telisa7
Telisa7
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I'm so glad you followed through with all of that.

2
Reply1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/EdwardDov

You mean "literal translation" not "transliteration."
This is about idiomatic phrasing, not phonemes.

0
Reply22 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

This thread has been a good discussion and taught me much in the months that I have participated in it. I am not good at learning different languages, so I try to make sense of the new language by making analogies between the grammar rules of each language. For instance, the idiomatic phrasing of Spanish is to say "los lunes," which literally is translated into "the Mondays," when the correct idiomatic translation to English is "on Mondays." What this means to me is that the English idiom uses the preposition "on" and the Spanish idiom uses the determiner "the." Still, each language's idiom mean the same thing to native speakers, and each language's idiom is equally valid because idiom itself is just a convenient shortcut to more rapid comprehension.

That's my understanding of how idiomatic usage works: it is the result of every language's evolution into phrases universally understood by the language's native speakers, so that when they hear frequently used phrases they don't have to waste time and mental energy on deciphering those phrases' meanings. Instead, the mental energy can be saved for deciphering new or less frequently used words and phrases.

The realization that learning the vocabulary is only the start of accepting and learning that different phrasing is another component of acquiring a second language. Thank you, Edward, for increasing my understanding of the meanings and nuances of the words "idiom" and "transliteration." Lingot to you.

11
Reply31 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jack-----jack

no

0
Reply1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Indwen
Indwen
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Lol transliteration

-1
Reply1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Arbo2919
Arbo2919
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Agreed

-4
Reply2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/CharlotteJ

Agreed--that was my response as well.

-6
Reply5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/blakerandall

same

-7
Reply5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/isaacishumble
isaacishumble
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same and e=mc2

-6
Reply2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Selma-Ibrahim

How many languages are you studying? I mean, wow.

-7
Reply2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/isaacishumble
isaacishumble
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17

-5
22 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/vicki.kura

But since que was not in the sentence...

-13
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/HolyT
HolyT
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This is not how que would be used in Spanish. That in "That much" is a demonstrative pronoun, used as an adjective. In Spanish, the demonstrative pronouns are not used in this manner. As far as a Spanish speaker is concerned, this English construction is an idiomatic expression that does not have a direct analogue in Spanish. Tanto fits the bill here in Spanish. Que has nothing to do with demonstrative pronouns in Spanish and has no place here whatsoever.

7
Reply23 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

Lingot to you for mentioning that Spanish does not define the pronouns este, esta, esto, estes, and estas as either demonstrative pronouns or subordinate conjunctions. In fact, Spanish grammar doesn't have subordinated conjunctions as English defines them, but rather just compound sentences and sentences in subjunctive tense. IMO, the reason that commas aren't used more in Spanish is that all clauses in Spanish are what English grammar calls "independent," and only an "y," "e," "pero" or "sino" is needed to connect them. By virtue of the syntax of each Spanish clause being "independent," it is a given that only these conjunctions, or other Spanish colloquialisms that work like them, are needed. Accordingly, translated sentences that English grammar breaks down into two smaller sentences so that they won't be "run-on" sentences are, IMO, the Spanish equivalent of English "complex" sentences (defined by English grammar as sentences with subordinate clauses). These equivalently complex Spanish sentences, again in my opinion, are combined because their ideas are interconnected, and putting all of these related ideas and details in one sentence emphasizes that. I also read a comment in Duo about Spanish subjunctive sentences that stated that the first and second clauses of a subjunctive sentence need to have subjects and predicates that differ from each other. In terms of complexity, this indicates that syntactically the subordinate clause is to English what the subjunctive tense is to Spanish, except that there are "WEIRDO" stipulations in Spanish.

2
Reply11 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/speedomacphee

In Australia, I do not drink much beer means the same as I do not drink a lot of beer.

18
Reply5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/thenexthat
thenexthat
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In Australia, "I do not drink much beer" means you're a shameless liar

154
Reply53 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AllyFiesta

Oh sssnnnnaaap!

12
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/heydarling

It's the same in America, too.

5
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/adamaz1ng

If I wanted to say simply, "I don't drink much," would it be better to say "no bebo mucho" or could I say "no bebo tanta (tanto)."

13
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lotusplague

"no bebo mucho" is I don't drink much. "no bebo tanto" is I don't drink too much. Mucho = much; Tanto = too much, in these sentences. I hope this helps :D

65
Reply34 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Hucklebeary

So are you saying that mucho here in this context could mean "frequency" as in "I don't drink much" = "I don't drink very often" ?

or... could both mucho and tanto also be used in that context? Can they both be used for frequency as well as quantity?

Thanks in advance.

7
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lotusplague

When it comes to frequency you can use either one.

The difference between "mucho" and "tanto" is subtle. Sort of like saying: "I don't drink a lot" (mucho) vs "I don't drink too much" (tanto). This is difficult to explain because "tanto" does not translate well into English. It does mean "too much" however, a better way to think of it is that it means "more than a lot".

Also, all the Spanish speakers I know use both interchangeably for amount, but for frequency "tanto" is used most. They say both are usable for frequency as well though.

I hope this helps. Dx

48
Reply74 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/conpanbear

So "tanto" has the sense of "excessively"?

12
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lotusplague

Simply put, yes! :)

7
3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Hucklebeary

I appreciate you coming back to explain further. Thank you very much :)

Have a lingot.

5
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

Lingot to you!

1
Reply2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/malkeynz
malkeynz
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Wouldn't I don't drink too much be no bebo demasiado?

no bebo tanto seems to translate better to I don't drink that much (although Duo's given answer is just "I do not drink much").

2
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lotusplague

OK, I asked my Spanish speaking friends and this is what they told me. You basically have it right, however, "demasiado" has a bit more meaning than "tanto". That is why in English you could translate tanto to "that much" and demasiado to "too much", but they are both used interchangeably when you say "too much".

9
Reply13 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Katie7511

Thank you! I was getting so confused between demasiado, tanto and mucho

0
Reply1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JamesRodri20

Why not 'tanto'?

13
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MeleeNess23
MeleeNess23
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Because cerveza is a feminine word, and tanta is the feminine conjugation for tanto.

Hope this helps.

18
Reply12 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Mary586588

I wish this was at the top of the thread. I had to read tanto to find out why my use of tanto was wrong.

2
Reply11 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/KatieMarsh698900

THANK YOU

0
Reply9 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JulaMama

I dont understand why tanto is taught as "so many" and then in this sentence it means "so much." I tried it as "so much" in another exercise where the translation would have made sense and it told me no it is "so many," which made no sense. I am confused...

3
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RaviOnline

So much = tanto/tanta (singular) So many = tantos/tantas (plural)

6
Reply2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/HolyT
HolyT
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Agreed. "So many" is a sloppy translation in English. It may fit in a very informal and imprecise context.

2
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/hanboning
hanboning
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tanta < tantus (Latin), cognates with tant (French), tanta (Italian, Portuguese) .

3
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/CloseToHome

Lies detected.

2
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/EugeneTiffany

Unless it was me saying it.

0
Reply1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Guilder03

It wouldn't be grammatically correct to say "that" much beer. No where in the statement that can be used. The problem is we need to understand how the Spanish language is spoken and that it's translation does not always correspond the way we speak English word for word.

2
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JonathanKu19

I wrote "I do not drink too much beer" and it accepted.

2
Reply2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/tzvipi
tzvipi
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Lies.

2
Reply2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AndrewCurren16

I do not drink beer!!!!!

2
Reply12 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AndrewCurren16

:-(

1
Reply2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/EugeneTiffany

One would think beer would be a good brain preservative, no? But obviously the opposite is the case.

0
Reply1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/michisjourdi
michisjourdi
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I should have considered the context but it really does sound like she is saying "tanto."

1
Reply5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/julian_n12

"I do not drink beer so much" was wrong however hivering over tanta suggests "so much". Is there any case in which my sentence would be true?

1
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/YehudaF

tanta cerveza would be referring to the quantity drunk; your sentence would be referring to how often you drink, but it might still be considered grammatically incorrect, i.e. better to say "so often" - maybe.

4
Reply4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

In this case, think of it as the words "so" and "that" being used as adjectives to describe the pronoun "much." If you're wondering what English noun the pronoun "much" could be substituting for, think of the pronoun "much" referring to the noun phrase "a lot." This is not a literal translation, but it is a good way to remember how these Spanish pronouns can be substituted for either the English noun phrase "a lot" or the English word "much."

0
Reply1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/sweetamber84

So, in the context of yo, why is the correct term tanta and not tanto, for this sentence?

1
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/amble2lingo

Because "tanta" is modifying the noun "cerveza" which is a feminine noun. It has nothing to do with "yo" gender.

3
Reply3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/reischsebastian

I always drink the First or the Last one.

1
Reply2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/EugeneTiffany

And you dump the ones in the middle? Good plan.

2
Reply1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/TheDevLee
TheDevLee
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Oh man, Duolingo is dropping some pretty heavy subjects on us!

1
Reply2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AltheaVet

How would you say "I don't drink enough beer."?

1
Reply2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/amble2lingo

No bebo bastante cerveza.

0
Reply1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/KevinWilt

"But when I do, I prefer dos equis"

1
Reply1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jack-----jack

VROOOOOOOOM

1
Reply1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/baker910

When you hover over "tanta" it sounds like she is saying "scanta" to me. Good thing I read it.

0
Reply4 years ago