"I had skin cancer."

Translation: Bende cilt kanseri vardı.

[Ehsan_Mehmed]

Why bende and not benim?

[Selcen_Ozturk]

It is not possible to use the possesive for diseases. I guess it is simply because we don't own them.

[Ehsan_Mehmed]

make sense. thanks a lot!

[DarynKJohn]

Ive never heard of idim before. What does that mean here?

[mizinamo]

"İdim" is "I was". Nowadays, it's usually written together with the previous word (e.g. hasta idim = hastaydım = I was ill; kütüphanede idim = kütüphanedeydim = I was at the library; müdür idim = müdürdüm = I was a director).

[DarynKJohn]

Thank you

[JeremyWyat1]

Why idim but not oldum?

[Selcen_Ozturk]

"Ben cilt kanseri oldum" means you still have it. You "got" it and you still have it

[balpers]

Why is "Cilt kanseri bende vardı" wrong?

[Millan703105]

Why cilt kanserim vardı is wrong

[amrbekhit]

So the literal translation of this is "I was skin cancer". So extrapolating that to other tenses, if I wanted to say "I have skin cancer", would you say "cilt kanseriyim"?

[mizinamo]

"bende var" is not "I am" but "I have" or "at me there exists".

[Selcen_Ozturk]

you can say it, but the better way to say it is as you can see "bende cilt kanseri var/vardı/varmış" etc

[leighozdemir]

So if "cilt kanseri idim" is ok, would "cilt kanseriydim" be acceptable? Literally something like, "I was skin cancer-y"?

[Selcen_Ozturk]

Yes

[DonaldLeBeau]

And what about 'Cilt kanseri oldum.' ..?

[DonaldLeBeau]

I see above why not. It would mean I still had it. Thanks.

[NouranA.Me]

Why bende? Bende means me too, right?

[mizinamo]

Bende means me too, right?

No -- that's ben de (two words).

bende is literally "at me". But bende X var gets translated as "I have (the) X", since we don't say "the X is at me" in English for this meaning.

[00905356841928wp]

Why not
Cilt kanseri vardım

[HasanYar1]

Bunlar nasıl örnek? Siz saglam insanı hasta edersiniz

[qara320774]

A bad example((

[MG7yQ]

why "cilt kanserim vardı" is not accepted? is it wrong?