"Bu adamın daha çok gücü var."

Translation:This man has more power.

3 years ago

31 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/IanBod
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Why is çok included when daha means more?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AlexinNotTurkey
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Before nouns, it just has to be there. I wish there were a better answer than that :) You can only use "daha" by itself before adjectives.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/IanBod
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No, that's a great explanation. What about before adverbs? daha veya daha çok ?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AlexinNotTurkey
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Just "daha" :) Adverbs and adjectives behave almost identically in Turkish

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/IanBod
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Daha on its own after the noun and daha çok before the noun. Is that correct?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AlexinNotTurkey
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"daha" is used before adjectives to mean "more" or "-er." "daha çok" is used before nouns to mean "more"

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mkarabiy

actually daha does not mean more. çok =many , daha çok = more. It is only the -er suffix in English. One can use just daha, but depending on the context it can mean more, less or something else. imagine someone is turning down the volume, you can say daha and here it means less. if smone turning it up an you say daha , it means more. it just adds the comparative meaning.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AlexinNotTurkey
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Exactly....and the comparative adjective in English can be either "more X" or "Xer" :) (i.e. more intelligent/smarter)

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AboAyman3

I think the exact translation should be: this man has much more power.

1 month ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mkarabiy

Daha does not only mean more. One can say "daha az" which means less. same with "daha güçlü" and daha zayıf", stronger, and weaker. Consider daha as -er suffix in english, like strong-er or weak-er.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JamesTWils
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In some varieties of English, "has got" is acceptable, but it is never required.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Selcen_Ozturk
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we are aware of that, and that's why "has got" is an accepted alternative (while only "has" is the suggested best answer) here. So I don't know what you are trying to say :)

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JamesTWils
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Oh, now I see. I answered "This man has a lot more power," which was corrected to "This man has got more power." I thought it was "has" that was being marked wrong, but it was "a lot." Sorry for the confusion and thank you for the help.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/eileengarton
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why does the 'ch' change to 'c' in gücü?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AlexinNotTurkey
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3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/eileengarton
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thanks Alexin

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DJTayanc
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Why is it 'adamın' instead of just 'adam'? Because it is his 'guç'?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/BrunnoHC

Adamın is the genitive form of adam. So adamın gücü is (the) man's power. (Bu adamın gücü varThis man's power exists)

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/iskastea2
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Would it be incorrect to say "bu adam daha çok gücü var"? How would you translate "I have more power?"

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Marie392547
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'I have more power.' = 'Benim daha çok gücüm var.'

You cannot say 'bu adam daha çok gücü var.' This sentence needs a genitive / possessive construction.

Literally it would be:
Bu adamın / gücü / var.
This man's / his power / exists.

10 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dazrehs

It did not accept "this person". Is not it identical to "this man"?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/LucBE
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No, it is not identical at all, it is another word.
A person can be a man or a woman, and in the U.S. it can even be a company... :-)

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JamesTWils
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Well, legally speaking, that is true in all common law countries. It descends from a medieval principal, so it may be true in civil law countries as well, but I am not as familiar with those legal systems. Can a corporation enter into a contract on the Continent? If so, it is a legal person.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/LucBE
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Yes, we make a distinction between natural persons (real people) and legal persons (corporations etc.).
I was referring to the fact that in the US apparently legal persons are given some rights that in sensible countries are only given to natural persons. :-)
Back to learning Turkish, now. :-)

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JamesTWils
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Ah, yes, we Americans can be rather extreme when it comes to speaking our minds, whether individually or in groups.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MasoudKoma

Can we say "This human" instead of "This man" in translation of "Bu adam"?!!!!

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/bjp123456

My answer 'This man is much stronger' is said to be incorrect. Why?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PersianPolyglot

Is this actually "güç" that has turned into "gucu" because of the harmony stuff ? :)

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JamesTWils
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Well, it needs the final vowel because it is possessed by adamın. The vowel harmony means that final vowel is ü, and the consonant gradation (that's the term in Uralic, I don't know about Turkic) changes the ç to c.

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PersianPolyglot

Got it . That's actually what I meant. Thanks for the clarification ,friend :)

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Mirage20
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I wrote, "This man still has a lot of power", but it was not accepted. Why?

1 month ago
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