"Bu adamın daha çok gücü var."

Translation:This man has more power.

July 25, 2015

This discussion is locked.

  • 1908

Why is çok included when daha means more?


Before nouns, it just has to be there. I wish there were a better answer than that :) You can only use "daha" by itself before adjectives.

  • 1908

No, that's a great explanation. What about before adverbs? daha veya daha çok ?


Just "daha" :) Adverbs and adjectives behave almost identically in Turkish


I think the exact translation should be: this man has much more power.


I was thinking that the most "literal" translation would be : "This man's power is much more." I know that it's poor usage of English but it helps me understand the Turkish more easily.


If that is not an acceptable translation, I'd like to know how to say that.

  • 1908

Daha on its own after the noun and daha çok before the noun. Is that correct?


"daha" is used before adjectives to mean "more" or "-er." "daha çok" is used before nouns to mean "more"


actually daha does not mean more. çok =many , daha çok = more. It is only the -er suffix in English. One can use just daha, but depending on the context it can mean more, less or something else. imagine someone is turning down the volume, you can say daha and here it means less. if smone turning it up an you say daha , it means more. it just adds the comparative meaning.


Exactly....and the comparative adjective in English can be either "more X" or "Xer" :) (i.e. more intelligent/smarter)


Daha does not only mean more. One can say "daha az" which means less. same with "daha güçlü" and daha zayıf", stronger, and weaker. Consider daha as -er suffix in english, like strong-er or weak-er.

  • 2488

Weaker = more weak.


Why is it 'adamın' instead of just 'adam'? Because it is his 'guç'?


Adamın is the genitive form of adam. So adamın gücü is (the) man's power. (Bu adamın gücü varThis man's power exists)


Would it be incorrect to say "bu adam daha çok gücü var"? How would you translate "I have more power?"


'I have more power.' = 'Benim daha çok gücüm var.'

You cannot say 'bu adam daha çok gücü var.' This sentence needs a genitive / possessive construction.

Literally it would be:
Bu adamın / gücü / var.
This man's / his power / exists.


why does the 'ch' change to 'c' in gücü?


In some varieties of English, "has got" is acceptable, but it is never required.


we are aware of that, and that's why "has got" is an accepted alternative (while only "has" is the suggested best answer) here. So I don't know what you are trying to say :)


Oh, now I see. I answered "This man has a lot more power," which was corrected to "This man has got more power." I thought it was "has" that was being marked wrong, but it was "a lot." Sorry for the confusion and thank you for the help.


It did not accept "this person". Is not it identical to "this man"?

  • 2488

No, it is not identical at all, it is another word.
A person can be a man or a woman, and in the U.S. it can even be a company... :-)


Well, legally speaking, that is true in all common law countries. It descends from a medieval principal, so it may be true in civil law countries as well, but I am not as familiar with those legal systems. Can a corporation enter into a contract on the Continent? If so, it is a legal person.

  • 2488

Yes, we make a distinction between natural persons (real people) and legal persons (corporations etc.).
I was referring to the fact that in the US apparently legal persons are given some rights that in sensible countries are only given to natural persons. :-)
Back to learning Turkish, now. :-)


Ah, yes, we Americans can be rather extreme when it comes to speaking our minds, whether individually or in groups.


Is this actually "güç" that has turned into "gucu" because of the harmony stuff ? :)


Well, it needs the final vowel because it is possessed by adamın. The vowel harmony means that final vowel is ü, and the consonant gradation (that's the term in Uralic, I don't know about Turkic) changes the ç to c.


Got it . That's actually what I meant. Thanks for the clarification ,friend :)


I wrote, "This man still has a lot of power", but it was not accepted. Why?

  • 2488

Because you added the word 'still', and 'a lot of' is not a comparison. You're actually saying something different.


I understand what you are saying, but I feel that the word "daha" can be interpreted to mean both "more" and "still" in this case.

Examples of Daha meaning more in the sentences below.

"Selcen'nin senden daha çok gücü var". (Selcen has more power than you).

"O yuku kaldıramayacağını sandık ama bu adamın daha çok gücü var". (We thought he couldn't lift that weight, but this man has more power).

I was referring to a sentence in which daha can mean still rather than more. Examples: "Daha çok gençsin, değişeceksin". (You are still young, you will change). "Daha çok gücün var". (You have more power) OR (You still have a lot of power). Meaning you still have power renaining.

"Bu adamın daha çok gücü var" can also be interpreted to mean "This man has more power", as well as, "This man still has a lot of power remaining".


In fairness, the way the sentence is read out by the computer voice, there is partial stress on the word "çok" and full stress on "gücü", so it sounds like:

"Bu adamın daha çok gücu var"

When stressed this way, a native speaker would interpret it as:

"This man still has... (something)"

What does this man still have? - lots of power (the stressed words)


"This man still has lots of power"

If it were read out the way it should have been, there would be full stress on "daha" and partial stress on "çok" so it would sound as follows:

"Bu adamın daha çok gücü var"

This is interpreted as:

"This man has more of (something) [than...]"

The something he has more of is power, so it means:

"This man has more power [than...]"

I think it is very difficult for a non-native speaker to know this and the computer voice needs to be updated.

I hope that all makes sense.


Yes, that is the reason for my interpretation of the meaning of this sentence. Thank you very much for your comments...they are much appreciated. :)


Even the English sentence seems ambiguous to me (This man has more power.) It can mean "This man hasn't used up all his power" or "This man has more power than somebody else." I'm not a native English is speaker, though.


'This man has greater power' -why is this wrong ?


I read the other comments and understood why daha çok is used. Just one final question. Can we say only daha gücü and still be understood with the same/close meaning(This man has more power)

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