No! The "liaison" is forbidden after a verb, except in some cases for the verbs "être" and "avoir". If you feel like reading about that in French: http://www.lepointdufle.net/ressources_fle/liaisons_obligatoires_liaisons_interdites.htm#.VASoM_l5OSo
I just want to double check this - I found two sources below mentioning optional liaisons:
They seem to imply that these are allowed, but just very high register - is this true?
It's a complicated topic: in the ones that you just posted there are couple that I would tend to do spontaneously, other ones that sound VERY old-school. In any case, what they imply is that all of these are allowed, but not compulsory, and the latter ones are very uncommon and sound particularly high register.
Thanks, I see... the examples given such as "il faut passer‿à table" and "ils arriveront‿à midi" are very similar in form to the sentence given here - "il appartient à mon oncle."
So does this mean you feasibly could say "Il appartient‿à mon oncle" as a liaison facultative, but it would sound unusually old school/high register?
And would there be any difference with "Ils appartiennent‿à mon oncle"? (I heard it is possible to liaison after the 3rd person plural vowel, but it sounds very high register?)
But it would not be confused by a francophone. English speakers learning French may be stuck on seeing "il" as "he" but it is just as common to use it as a pronoun for a masculine-gender noun. Besides which, "ce" does not translate to "it" and using that here is not correct. I suspect that thinking in English may incorrectly steer us toward trying to choose a gender-neutral pronoun but that is not the French way. When you know what "it" represents, simply choose the appropriate pronoun, i.e., "il" or "elle".
Pingu632 - this is not wrong because of grammar, but because of context. In English (post slavery) one would never say "he belongs to my uncle" because that implies ownership rather than relationship. If one is referring to an object, one would always say "it belongs to my uncle;" if one is referring to a person, one implies relationship by saying "he is my uncle's"- this would be seen as short for "he is my uncle's son." Even in the case of an animal, where both ownership and a gender-specific pronoun may be used, one would generally say "it belongs to my uncle"- following up with "she's a lovely canary" or something else to clarify.
Good question. I've learned that some verbs in French always have 'a' (excuse the lack of a `) and others have 'de' and some, like penser can use either or (I think) none. So I looked it up and found this:
Verb Table [objet] appartenir à qn to belong to sb
[personne] to belong to, to be a member of
Verb Table il lui appartient de it is up to him to
⇒ Il appartient à chacun d'assumer ses responsabilités. It is up to each individual to take on his or her responsibilities.
I'm a little confused about why it can't be plural here? Ils appartient a mon uncle? They belong to my uncle? I have read through the comments and find only one reference to this issues of plural ownership which makes absolutely no sense. Thank you for putting up with my ignorance. Merci!
to possess = posséder to own = posséder
belongs to s.o. = appartenir
In English possession is NOT THE SAME as ownership. In English ownership does not connote immediate possession. In English possession does not connote ownership.
In English "belongs to" is equivalent to "owned by s.o."
Thus, "It belongs to ..." could as easily be "Il posséde ..." as "Il appartient ..." to an English-speaking person using French.