Translation:You did not used to see me every week because I did not used to live here.
'You did not used to see me every week because I did not used to live here.'
That's not grammatical. It's 'used to' or 'did not use to'. We tend to elide the end of 'use(d)' and 'to', so it sounds the same either way, but if you're writing it down, there is a distinction.
Personally I prefer 'usedn't' but that's not accepted.
Bit long-winded for English, though I guess DL wants us to spell out that we understand the verb tense. The adverbial of time (gach seachtain) allows the English to go with the simple past in both clauses. You didn't see me every week because I didn't live here.
Is the pronunciation for this correct? Should the end of 'fheiceadh' be pronounced with a [x] or an [u]?
Always [ˈfʲɛcəx] In Munster. In Galway, Mayo and Ulster, it's [ˈfʲɛcətʲ] before sé, sí, sibh. When not before sé, sí sibh, it's [ˈfʲɛcəx] in Galway, [ˈfʲɛcuː] in Mayo and [ˈfʲɛcu] in Ulster. Every instance of feiceadh in the imperfect is followed by sé, sí, sibh, so it has to be either [ˈfʲɛcəx] or [ˈfʲɛcətʲ]. https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/feiceadh
I believe it is not accepted just because in Irish you have one tense with the meaning of both “used to” and the actual verb, so maybe they don’t want to separate the two elements in English or you may read them as two separate things: as a non-native English speaker, and a native speaker of a language (Italian) that uses the imperfect tense a lot, I feel a slight difference in focus between “you didn’t use to see me” and “you used not to see me”. The second one gives me a sense of something made on purpose, but maybe that’s just me. Anyway, it would make sense to write it as it is now, if only it was spelled correctly.