I have seen in many places that the word before "arasinda" is with no possessive suffix e.g: "adamla kadin arasinda", why is that?
Can anyone please tell me why do we need the "with"-suffix here.
I understand that's the way it works, but I cannot comprehend it.
Aren't "us" and "them" in the same situation here so that they both should have the same grammatical form?
They do have the same grammatical form, as "bizim" and "onlarin" are both genitives. I think the logic is this: "bizim" and "onlarin" are connected by "-le" --> "ours with their" = "ours and their", leading to the idea "this is ours and their (common) between".
can i use this not only for physical things but also for other stuff... like for example an important business: "this is between us and them"?