What's the difference between "on veut" and "nous voulons"? On is always used with first person, singular?
"on" is conjugated at 3rd person singular (same as il/elle).
"on veut des frites" is much easier and quicker to say than "nous voulons des frites". That is why in everyday conversations, people tend to use "on" instead of "we" or other people they don't want to name.
yea there was! it was pretty clear but i could not figure out the word it was supposed to represent
I guess because she speaks so fast you can't hear the "V" is what we're saying
I clicked on the turtle and still didn't hear it and ironically after I played with regular speed I heard the "v"
It might have accepted "We want some chips", but it marked "Chips are wanted" as wrong, and told me "Fries are wanted" :( Oh, well
Is "People want fries" not correct? Like: "In general, everyone wants fries"
But by meaning that doesn't mean 'people' is wrong even though "we" is a more common usage? I feel that this depends on context and it's frustrating to see the answer keys randomly use "we" or "people".
Duo - Why is 'They want fries' wrong!
To quote your own explanation given in the notes:
"On is a versatile and ubiquitous French indefinite subject pronoun. Francophones usually say on to refer to "us", "them", or one or more unidentified persons. On is always masculine and third-person singular, which is why conjugation charts often list il/elle/on together."!!!!
"on" is 3rd person singular, like "il, elle": on veut
"nous" is 1st person plural: nous voulons
Why is "we want some fries" wrong ? des fries does mean some fries..? correct
If you have hard times with vowel sounds (i vs ui) you can listen to the end of the word:
friT vs frui
Nous voulons des frites would be one way of saying we want some chips/fries/local descriptor of hot potato things. But on veut is frequently used casually to do so. Literally it means 'one wants some fries' but in common usage it's often used instead of the slightly more formal nous voulons. See http://french.about.com/od/grammar/ss/subjectpronouns_5.htm for details.
Is the French "r" supposed to trill when it comes after an "f"? It sounded like it did in this and one of the other examples.
everyone can put "?" and "!" as much as you can and not getting it wrong. it doesnt work if you get the answer wrong
This seems like a rather strange way of talking. Is this a common phrasing?
"on veut des frites" is much easier and quicker to say than "nous voulons des frites".
That is why in everyday conversations, people tend to use "on" instead of "we".
There might be an occasion to use "they" in place of "on":
In a restaurant, a server back to the kitchen and saying: "they want more fries on table 4" = "on veut plus de frites à la table 4". However, chances are that the server will use "ils" instead.
Correction / clarification: in English "frites" is chips. NOT fries. That's an Americanism, valid only in Eng US. It did NOT accept the English "chips" for me [as claimed by others below]
We know this, and this is why "chips" is also recognized as a correct translation, if the rest of the sentence is correct as well.
could you also say "on veut de fries?" I only ask this question because sometimes, when I translate "des" it is replaced with "de"
No, you can't.
- "fries" is not a French word; you need "frites"
- "de" is not an article, but a preposition (of); you need the plural indefinite article "des" when the noun is in plural. "Des frites" is the plural of "une frite".
There are exceptions to the latter rule:
- in negative, the article disappears and "de" is used alone: je ne mange pas de frites (I don't eat fries)
- when the plural noun is preceded by an adjective, the article disappears and "de" is used alone: je mange de grosses frites (I eat big fries).
I apologise for thanking you so late. I do know that fries is not a French word..( I was just not observant) I also do understand that.... de.... is not a article but a preposition for .....of..... and des frites is the plural....I only did not understand why sometimes for plural ....des... can become ....de and your explanation ....when the plural noun is preceded by an adjective the des disappears.... in..... je mange de grosses frites....makes now sense to me. you are my favourite moderator. you are so patient and your explanations and replies to all the various comments in the discussions of us learners is so clear and makes so much sense. if I want to give up I just need to remember all your comments to people and then I am encouraged to continue with Duo....
the audio is unintelligible when she says " On veut". It sounds like she says "une heure"
"1 wants some fries" is ridiculous! "I want some fries" is more natural. No one says, "One wants some fries."
We know about this anomaly in the algorithm which has puzzled thousands of learners for 3 years. Please try to ignore this.
If the system showed you "(1)One wants some fries", it may be because you made a mistake in the first word of your translation, which is the pronoun.
The best translation for "On veut des frites" is "we want fries". If you used anything else than "we", the system may have shown you this unusual translation, which is unnatural but grammatically correct.
Yes, it is. If you hear a T sound at the end, it is "frites". The ending sound in "fruits" is "ee".