"Le lee un diario."
'Le' is where 'it' is in the sentance. 'Lee' means 'he/she reads' so 'Le lee' means 'he/she reads it'
thanks for the reply I can understand what you saying, however, the point I was trying to make is that you would never say "he reads it a newspaper" therefore when translating from spanish i get it wrong because it sounds wrong in english, even though its right.??? I'll get back to my glass of wine !!
To me, it seems like 'Le' is him/(to) him or you/(to) you. As per the tips, 'le' and 'les' are indirect object pronouns. 'un diario' is the object of the sentence. For example, ''She writes a letter to Peter'', She (subj) writes (verb) a letter (direct object) to Peter (indirect object). But we might also say ''She writes Peter a letter''. Indirect object tells 'to whom' or 'For whom'.
I guess if she or he reads it a newspaper they must mean the dog or cat. Really not how I would ever say it. I always say " I read the newpaper to the cat and then I add, " It doesn't listen"
I think it's supposed to mean "He reads a newspaper to himself" - reflexive.
it could also be referring to a third person or object. for example "how does he make the dog stop barking" answer "he reads him the newspaper"
you are right, at least - this spanish sentence definitely could mean that. They are going to have to include some more english translations to accommodate this meaning
So the bottom line is " He reads a newspaper" with the le referring to the newspaper.
Folks, the correct translation is - He (or she) reads a newspaper to HIM. "Le" is the indirect object, and means "to him".
Lee un diario = She reads a newspaper. The "le" at the beginning makes it "to him/her." (indirect object pronoun ... to whom/for whom)
Only if there is a direct obj and an indirect obj. Ex: Se lo lee = He/she reads it to him ... "It" is direct obj and "to him" is indirect obj.
Since there is no qualifier, if I'd answered she instead of he would it have been correct?
"le" means "to him/it", but "lee" could be either "she reads" or "he reads"... in practice would this sentence normally use él or ella to make it clear who was doing the reading?
"He reads him a newspaper" is given as one of the correct results. In American English this is not just awkward, but grammatically incorrect, since it's a pronoun/reference agreement error. You would have to replace either "he" or "him" with a name (either one.) Also, the more common spoken version here would be, "She/he reads a newspaper to him," largely to avoid confusion with "She/he reads him" where "him" refers to a male author. For instance, "Does she read Stephen King?" "Yes, she reads him."
I tend to agree, though I can imagine myself using the phrase "he reads him a newspaper"... lots of expressions we use are grammatically incorrect but just seem to have become normalised through common use. Interesting you should mention American English, as I think this is one of the areas where there is quite a major difference with British English. I've noticed american TV and movies say things like "I wrote my friend", and "they were protesting the war", which sounds distinctly odd to British ears. In Britain we would expect these to be "I wrote TO my friend" and "they were protesting ABOUT the war"...
Yeah, preposition use definitely varies between regions. "I wrote to my friend" usually sounds better to me too, but there are cases where I might use "I wrote my friend," depending on context. For instance: "Did you tell anyone?" "Well, I wrote my friend." Because in that case, the emphasis is on who I told, not the process of writing the letter. But I can see where that might sound odd out of context!
I remember an example of this in South Park, where Cartman pays a Mexican guy to write an essay for him. He goes back 2 days later and says "well, did you write your essay?". The Mexican says "sure, I wrote my ese in Tijuana, told him how cold it is here".