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  5. "We have bread."

"We have bread."

Translation:Bizim ekmeğimiz var.

July 30, 2015



Can "bizim" be omitted?


"We have bread." Translation: Bizim ekmeğimiz var.


Ekmeğimiz var. Correct other Turkish answer accepted by Duo.

Bizde ekmek var. Correct other Turkish answer accepted by Duo.


why ekmegi(miz) can't i just say ekmegi..?


This is a genitive possession construction. When you have "bizim," its object needs to have the possessive ending -(I)miz. :)


"ekmeğı" means his/her "bread"


So to say "We have X" you're actually kind of saying, "X is in our possession"?


More like "Our X exists".


Or, "there is our X"


I think not quite - the "there is" construction in English is usually for indefinite objects, I think ("there is a cat in the room") but not for definite ones such as possessed ones ("there is our cat in the room" -- that would be "our cat is in the room" instead).

Similarly, to claim the existence of at least one god, one can say, "There is a god", but to claim the existence of the Abrahamic god by the English-language name "God", one can't say "There is God", but rather, "God exists".


I believe that we are supposed to say (miz) with var which means that we HAVE and (muz) with yok which means that we DO NOT HAVE correct me if i am wrong please. Tesekkurler


But then the literal translation of "Bizim ekmeğimiz var" is "Our bread exists." If it was "Our bread does not exist(or we do not have bread) then it would be "Bizim ekmeğimiz yok," right? I mean the ending only applies according to the vowels themselves.


Hi! Can somebody please tell me where to use -miz/muz/iz, like ekmeğiz vs ekmeğimiz vs sütümuz


Why not ekmek bizde


That would be "We have the bread" :)

The locative case possessive structure is used for "specific" objects that you own.

The genitive one one with "var" is used for general objects.


You can consider a meaning as; ekmek bizde: The bread is with us. The bread is here with us.


Why can't I say "biz" instead of "bizim"?


Because that's not how Turkish makes possession sentences.

A literal translation might be something like "Our bread exists" -- so you need "our bread" (bizim ekmeğimiz -- possession is marked on both the possessor and the possession) there.


Can I say: "Ekmekmiz" ?


No, because the k becomes a soft ğ in the possessive case. It would be "Bizim ekmeğimiz var" which means "our bread exists" if you put it parallel to the English passive tense. You can also omit "bizim" for it to become "ekmeğimiz var"


Can we only say "Ekmeğimiz var"?


Why it doesn't have tips!!!!!


Why not "Bizim ekmeğimiz var" ?

I wrote this, and Duo said 'this is wrong' but before this exercise, I wrote "bizim ekmeğimiz var" for "we have bread" everytime. Now, suddenly, Duo wants "Ekmeğimiz var" why dude? Why can't I write "Bizim" before that ?


When i choose miz and when i choose muz ? please any help


You may also have to use -mız or -müz :)

This ending shows four-way vowel harmony. See https://www.duolingo.com/comment/9041808 .

So in this word, because the last syllable contains the vowel /e/, the ending is -(i)miz.


the translation here is different than the the one i get!!!!! I get the correction as "bizde ekemk var", i answered as "bizim ekmek var", which is right?? why bizde? and why here they wrote bizim?! this is so annoyingly confusing!!


It is difficult to explain in other languages. Let me try like this:

1)Bizim ekmeğimiz var We have bread.

2) Bizde ekmek var Here is bread with us.


Why is it ekmeğimiz and not ekmeği.


this is how turkish expresses the posession (Our bread exists) Bizim (our) Ekmek (Bread) k .... ğ (consonant alteration due to k between two vowels) i ( 4 way vowel harmony) miz ( the possession suffix in the case of plural second subject) var (exists)


ekmeğı : his/her bread

ekmegimiz: our break

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