Translation:She had shown that she could eat.
If 'podía' is being used in the imperfect, why isn't this translated as "She had demonstrated that she was able to eat." ?
Or 'She had demonstrated that she could eat'. 'Podia' is the imperfect of 'poder' and 'could' is the past tense of 'can'
I think duo struggles translating some of these forms. The drop down hints are pretty bad, I've been reporting it, but wow. podía came up as "she used to can" and also "canned"
Hola barnheart: I agree! I no longer pay any attention to the dropdown hints. They are not reliable. I use a good old-fashion Spanish/English dictionary.
I don't know about the drop-down hints, but all the conjugations of Podía are completely missing examples and example translations.
I used proven and was rejected. But I am going to report it again. It's been several months since I last did this exercise, and it seems like nothing has been corrected. More people should give feedback in this section, particularly native Spanish speakers.
Why not "She had shown what she could eat?" I am aware that there would be an accent on "que," but not in this case... O_o
In another question "if she could run' was translated as si pudiera correr. I was marked wrong for putting "si podía correr'. So why is "podía comer' correct here? Same word 'could'.
This is a problem with English. We choose to use the word "could" and "would" as the conditional, imperfect, and subjunctive tenses. Which is just silly. For instance "I would eat" can mean three different things in English:
I would eat if I were you - conditional tense
When I was young, I would eat a ton - imperfect tense
My mom wishes that I would eat - subjunctive tense
While English decides to do this silliness, Spanish chooses to distinguish these three, separate ideas properly:
Yo que tú comería - conditional tense
Cuando era joven, comía muchísimo - imperfect tense
Mi mamá quiere que yo coma - subjunctive tense
To partially answer my own question, the word "if" changes the tense to conditional, which is why they used pudiera for "si pudiera comer"? Still unsure. I will need to memorize the conjugation of poder.
Nope. I just looked it up and pudiera is not conditional. It's subjunctive mood imperfect. Podía is indicative mood imperfect. Podría is indicative mood conditional. Now I am confused. Why would subjunctive imperfect be used for "Si pudiera correr" and not the conditional "si podria correr"? Next xtep... find out what "subjunctive" means.
It is the imperfect subjunctive which is the way to use the past subjunctive tense.
Where, oh where would you need to say/ reference this? There must be loads of sentences that one would want to use other than this one!
If "Ella habia (with accent on the i) demonstrado que podia (accent on the i) comer" translates to : "She HAD shown that she could (or 'was able to') eat", will someone please tell me how to say, "She has shown that she could (or 'was able to') eat"? My memory of English grammar keeps insisting that "Past Imperfect" indicates a "have/has" plus past participle structure. Wouldn't "had" plus past participle be Past Perfect?
I believe "has shown" would be "he demonstrado". Present tense "he" because as of the present moment she has shown . "Had shown" is "había demonstrado" because as of that past moment, she had already shown .