In the US we would most commonly say "She is depressed", but I could imagine someone saying "She has depression" as well and no one would think it terribly odd. The given translation of "She suffers from depression" sounds natural enough, but I don't like it as a translation for the Spanish sentence, because the Spanish sentence does not contain the verb "suffer". If we want to ad lib and improvise (as professional translators often do), then the possibilities are limitless - e.g., "She has been diagnosed with clinical depression" or "She seems depressed". To stick to the literal translation, I can accept "She is depressed" because this is similar to "Ella tiene 20 years" as "She is 20 years old" or "Ella tiene hambre" for "She is hungry." The verb "tener" is frequently translated to the English verb "to be" (is/are). But no where does "tener" mean "suffer" - so I don't think it's an accurate translation for the purpose of Duolingo - for translating a literary work, maybe, but not where our goal is to improve our vocabulary in other languages.
I love this reply. I have made similar arguments in other threads, and sometimes I get shot down with "We're learning Spanish, not English" or "We don't need literal translations, as long as the meaning is the same." I had the same reaction you had when I saw "suffers from" as a correct answer.
Squeez... you got that right. The English sentences only serve to help us gain an understanding about what the Spanish sentences mean. And the simpler and more direct the English sentences, the better. We have no actual use for any other English ways to say something beyond what Duolingo shows unless it is in error.
Same here. DL translated it to "she has depression" which sounds wrong. This annoyed me about DL several times now: Cases where you cannot be sure whether you are expected to translate a sentence literally to a sentence that sounds unnatural in the target language or if you should translate it to a commonly used sentence which is semantically equivalent.
Is the same thing if we say: "a friend of mine has depression", it's more Aussy? I found it there: http://www.anew-day.com/counseling-services/support-articles/helping-friends-with-depression
She has depression. Or... She is depressed. American English would not capitalize depression or place an article before depression. Can a native Spanish speaker weigh in on whether this sentence is to mean she is temporarily depressed, permanently suffers from depression or can it mean either?