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  5. "Ili vendas multe da spicoj k…

"Ili vendas multe da spicoj kaj oleoj."

Translation:They sell a lot of spices and oils.

August 9, 2015



Why can't I say "lots" instead of "a lot".

"They sell lots of spices and oils."


It should be correct. You should report it.


Why not "spicojn kaj oleojn"? Isn't "vendas" transitive?


Yes, but "da" is a preposition, and so words after it will always be in the nominative.


I'm having high school Latin flashbacks with the nominative, genitive, dative, accusative, ablative, and vocative cases!


Why "multe da" instead of "multajn"?


There's often a difference in nuance or meaning between the two. In this case, multe da seems to suggest a large quantity, while multajn would imply a wide variety.


Thank you! I was wondering how one would make that distinction.


I head “Ili vendas multe da PICOJ kaj oleoj”


Same! I suppose I wasn't paying attention because it was very clear to me the second time


Ah c'mon! Lol the weirdest things are considered/not considered typos. Missing the "y" in they is obviously a typo.


To the computer grading algorithm, the only obvious typos are the ones that result in something that's not a word.

But "the" is a word, so the system can't tell whether it's a typo for "they" or whether you misremembered what ili meant, and errs on the side of "mistake" rather than "typo".

If you had written "thez" or "tey", it would probably have considered it a typo, because those aren't English words.


What exactly is the object of this sentence? In English, "lot" is the noun at the core of the direct object, and "a" and "of spices and oils" modify it, but here, "multe" is an adverb, so the prepositional phrase "da spicoj kaj oleoj" presumably modifies the verb? Or is there an implied noun?


It sounds like you pretty much have it down. There are two ways to look at it. First is that "multe" acts as a noun but doesn't take an -n because it isn't a noun... or you can see it as meaning:

  • We sell in great quantities of spice and oil.


Would it be possible to use "multaj" or "multajn" here, or would either need a noun to describe, as opposed to a prepositional phrase? And, come to think of it, isn't "multaj" used to quantify nouns directly in earlier duoLingo levels, before "da" is even introduced? The answer is probably obvious, I'm just not seeing it.


I'm not sure the answer is obvious. I'm running out the door now but my impulse is to say that "ili vendas multajn spicojn" - says nothing about the quantity spices sold - just the diversity of spices.


Oh, so that's NOT what this sentence means... I was reading "Ili vendas multe da spicoj kaj oleoj" more as "They sell a wide variety of spices and oils". But the use of "da" implies quantity specifically. Am I understanding that correctly?


Evidently, "they sell many spices and oils" isn't the same thing... tho in English, it is (unless you have more context defining it definitively in one direction or the other - which is not the case in this sentence).


I tried, "They sell a lot of spices and oil." Isn't "oil" a non-count noun?


Generally, yes - in both languages. The fact that it's plural here (in both languages) suggests the author was going for a different meaning - perhaps kinds of oil.


Do you have any posts/resources to recommend that lay out the situation with mass nouns vs count nouns and how they are treated?


My answer was considered incorrect even tho I had "They sell MANY spices and oils."


In ENGLISH " a lot of spices" means a large quantity,where as "a lot of oils" means many varieties of oil. Not the same. This question is multe da confusing


In ENGLISH "a lot of spices" means many varieties of spices, whereas "a lot of oils" means many varieties of oil. The same.


So, since "multe" has an adverb-ish form, should we understand this sentance as "they do a lot of selling of spices and oil"? And if so, how do I say "they sell large quantity of spices and oil"? "Ili vendas multajn da spicoj kaj oleoj"?

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