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- "The child has a strawberry."
"The child has a strawberry."
Translation:Tá sú talún ag an bpáiste.
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Both are forms of páiste, but bpáiste has undergone eclipsis while pháiste has undergone lenition. Eclipsis (explained fully in the tips and notes for this section) applies in this case because the phrase "ag an" precedes the word, requiring you to add a b and make it bpáiste. In other cases (described in tips and notes for lenition), pháiste might be required. As for the pronunciation, I haven't yet heard a recording of pháiste, but based on other words (phéitseog) I believe that would be correct.
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Is there any relationship between "straw" and "strawberry"?
The masculine noun sú means "juice". The feminine noun sú is use for certain red berries: sú talún - "strawberry", sú craobh - "raspberry".
So there are two different words sú - there is nothing unusual about that (Some examples from English: right=correct/not left, left=remaining/not right, ring=on a finger/sound of a bell, match=game/the same/light a fire, etc).
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Thanks! Yeah knew it wasn't unusual but as a learner it's good to spot where there are relationships to help remember but trying to tell apart from "false friends" is hard on your own.
Thanks!
It's not wrong. Sútha talún is the plural - "strawberries". This exercise requires the singular "a strawberry" - sú talún.
Thanks that makes a lot more sense. I'm new to this and was making assumptions. My bad. But I'm sure the strawberry is definitely the object, because the child is the subject which possesses the strawberry, unless a more detailed explanation of this concept arises.
Could one say tá sú talún ag an bpáiste aige? or would that be redundant?
The "ag" versus agam/aici/aige, etc mixed me up
VSO makes more sense than OVS, though, VOS.
I think I get it now, the "verb" is two prepositions split (tá ... ag) across the object.
If you care to could you please explain more about what this Gaelic specific distinction in conceptualisation of a subject is? I always learned the subject (in functional discourse grammar, at least) as the actor of the sentence. does it have something to do with this complex interrelationship between the position of these conjunctive particles? where does bí fit in?
thanks for this conversation it's interesting
tá is not a preposition, it's a verb - the present tense form of the verb bí.
Tá sú talún ag an bpáiste - "The child has a strawberry"
Bhí sú talún ag an bpáiste - "The child had a strawberry"
Beidh sú talún ag an bpáiste - "The child will have a strawberry"
Irish doesn't have a verb for "have", so it uses a completely different construction. There is no "actor" in "the child has a strawberry", because there is no "action". "the child" is the subject of the verb, but that's simply a convention, and Irish uses a different convention.