Because you are on a diet, you are an allergic person, medical prepscription...
Makes perfect sense to me. Me gusta la cerveza demasiado.
Take it easy, one day at a time, etc.
I grew up with beer in Germany. Now I'm allergic. This sentence is the story of my life
Why is article "la" before "cerveza" needed here? As we are saying it as a general habbit. Perhaps a basic ques even after getting this far :p
From a comment I saw in another section, the article is used when you are speaking in generalities, like "he speaks to women" (él habla a las mujeres) and "beds are white" (las camas son blancas). Here, he doesn't refer to a specific beer, but beer in general. "I like beer" = me gusta la cerveza
so if someone asked if you liked beer you could say "Sí, pero no la bebo" right?
jpopcorn you do not need the 'a' because it is already built into the indirect object pronoun 'me' which already means 'to me'.
I have seen a youtube video that explains you could say "A mí me gusta..." for emphasis. I will have to rely on native speakers to say whether anyone would actually say it that way.
[Instructional video by Sr. Jordan on gustar - http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=cRo55O9Zaic&list=PLEFD56D34AF2AA003&index=10]
Mostly we use "a mi me gusta..." when you are in a group an you are asked.
- ¿A quien le gusta la cerveza?
- A mi me gusta la la cerveza
Here without "a mi" sounds weird.
You use it too when you ask to another person and you give your own answer. Of course the other one it will use as well
- ¿Que te gusta a ti?, a mi me gusta la cerveza
- A mi me gusta también
It happens the same than in the precedent example, without "a mi" is not used, except the second speaker, He can say it without "a mi" but I think that it s less usual.
And of course for emphasis.
On the Duolingo conjugation list, i like (present) = me gusta and i liked (past) = gusté why?
Hola Bisade: I can't imagine why. It may be ok technically, but I can't imagine a real life situation where it would be used.
It's an unusual verb, which is easier seen as meaning 'pleases', so i'd see direct translation of 'me gusta' as 'me it pleases' , while me gusto as 'me i please', 'i please myself' or perhaps 'i like myself'
I think this may be an answer I was looking for in another example of "Me gusta." Thanks.
It's not unusual if you don't translate it to English "like" because it very plainly functions like "pleases" and not "likes".
Here's a list of 30 of the verbs that operate like gustar: http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/100085/verbs-like-gustar#.Ue385m3AG-c
Answer the question: Who's doing the action? Gustar is not as we normally express liking something in English: "I like X." In Spanish it is "the X pleases me." So it is not "yo" doing something (if it were, you WOULD use "gusto" like you suggest). It is the BEER doing the pleasing -- so that is like a he/she/usted sentence, and the he/she/usted verb is "gusta".
There's nothing unusual about the verb. "gusts" matches the subject, "cerveza". "gusto la cerveza" would be "I please the beer," which is silly.
Well, unusual probably wasn't the best way for me to explain, as several other spanish verbs work the same way, what i mean is these verbs work differently to those that most that english speakers learn early on, with format of subject (=person) followed by verb, then object. In verbs like 'gustar' it is indirect-pronoun for the person + verb + the object liked. Here, cerveza is not the subject but the object, and "gusts" doesn't exist in any format for this verb. And yes, 'gusto la cerveza' is rather silly usage.
I've been trying to mentally replace, "I like," with, "it pleases me," in order to try to 'think' in spanish, so I thought I'd try using "it pleases me" for spanish and english. I tried to write "the beer pleases me, but I don't drink it" and I was marked wrong. I assume this is because there is another verb in spanish for "to please" and it isn't gustar, but I was wondering if what I wrote was incorrect, and if my assumption is the reason for why I was marked as having been incorrect.
I wouldn't think of gustar = it pleases me, that's far to literal a definition. A translator would translate "Me gusta cerveza" as "The beer pleases me." The translation of "me gusta" as "it pleases" has more to do with the spanish grammar than what the phrase actually means.
It's kind of like how you expressing age in Spanish is very different from English. "Yo tengo diez anos" literally translated says "I have ten years," but the meaning is "I am 10 years old." Spanish and English just have major differences in what grammar/constructions they use to express age.
Can you use "me gusta" to me you love something other than a person? Such as I love beer = "Me gusta cerveza?"
In the latter part of the sentence, is the pronoun really necessary in Spanish? Because in English it seems redundant to refer to the beer again; It sounds much more natural in English to say "I like beer, but I do not drink."
Why do people clutter the the comment section with useless commentary. It is annoying especially when you are hoping for an explanation for something and you have to scroll through all that.
I was taught to translate such as sentence as "beer is pleasing to me" so we don't think it's some "gusto la cerbeza" is the way of going from English to Spanish.
Why when translating from spanish to english for the answer and we translate "the beer" for "la cerveza" it tells us the alternative translation is just beer but when translating from english to spanish it will take away a heart if you give the same answer?
i wrote "i do like the beer, but i don't drink it" as in "whats wrong, why don't you drink the beer, don't you like it ?" Duolingo didn't allow it. so how would paraphrase that subtle difference in spanish ?
What I know about do when used in an affirmative sentence is that it is used for emphasis. In Spanish, if we want to make a more emphatic sentence we add some words as claro, por supuesto..
The answer to your anwser in Spanish would be:
- Claro que/Por supuesto que/Sin duda me gusta la cerveza